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STENO-2024 held on 10/12/2024, 9:00 AM - 11:00 AM

Average Score: UR: 123.77 | OBC: 122.79 | EWS: 94.56 | SC: 121.2 | ST: 106.17

Section : General Intelligence and Reasoning

Q.1	Which figure should replace the question mark (?) if the following series were to be continued?

Ans	1.
	2.
	3.
	4.

Q.2	In a certain code language, 'BOOK' is coded as 172 and 'PAGES' is coded as 240. How will 'LIBRARY' be coded in the same language?

Ans	1. 680
	2. 595
	3. 510
	4. 469

Q.3	4 is related to 125 following a certain logic. Following the same logic, 8 is related to 729. Which of the following numbers is related to 1728 using the same logic? (NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/subtracting/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)

Ans	1. 9
	2. 12
	3. 10
	4. 11

Q.4	Which of the following numbers will replace the question mark (?) in the given series? 122, 135, 161, 200, 252, ?

Ans	1. 317
	2. 217
	3. 517
	4. 417

Q.5	What will come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following equation if ‘+’ and ‘−’ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged? 108 × 2 − 14 ÷ 6 + 27 = ?

Ans	1. 212
	2. 101
	3. 114
	4. 111

Q.6	Three statements are given, followed by three conclusions numbered I, II and III. Assuming the statements to be true, even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements. Statements: Some fathers are females. All fathers are males. Some fathers are mothers. Conclusions: I. Some males are not females. II. Some mothers are females. III. Some males are mothers.

Ans	1. All conclusions follow.
	2. Only conclusion III follows.
	3. Both conclusion II and III follow.
	4. Both conclusion I and III follow.

Q.7	Select the term from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series. GDA, OLI, WTQ, EBY, ?

Ans	1. KMN
	2. NQP
	3. LRS
	4. MJG

Q.8	Which letter-cluster will replace the question mark (?) to complete the given series? WGDE, ZEGC, ?, FAMY, IYPW

Ans	1. DBJC
	2. CCJA
	3. DCIB
	4. ZCIB

Q.9

Ans	1. D
	2. B
	3. A
	4. C

Q.10	Which of the following equations is correct when the numbers 3 and 9 are interchanged and the signs - and × are interchanged?

Ans	1. 1 - 9 × 10 ÷ 4 + 3 = 32
	2. 9 ÷ 2 × 1 - 3 + 5 = 15
	3. 9 ÷ 4 × 3 + 1 - 6 = 18
	4. 12 ÷ 9 - 2 × 7 + 3 = 10

Q.11	Select the option figure that will replace the question mark (?) in the figure given below and complete the pattern.

Ans	1.
	2.
	3.
	4.

Q.12	Six friends are playing a bottle-spinning game around a circular table, facing the centre. Rohini is sitting third to the left of Rashmi. Rahul is sitting in between Rashmi and Ramesh. Ravi is sitting in between Rohini and Raju. Ravi is sitting second to the right of Rashmi. Who among the following is sitting to the immediate left of Raju?

Ans	1. Rohini
	2. Ramesh
	3. Rashmi
	4. Rahul

Q.13	Five houses (A, B, C, D, and E) are located equidistant from each other in such a way that B is to the East of A, D is to the South of B, C is to the West of D, and E is to the South of C. In which direction is A to E?

Ans	1. West
	2. South-West
	3. North-East
	4. North

Q.14	If × means ÷, ÷ means −, − means +, and + means ×, what will be the value of the given expression? 7 + 5 ÷ 3 − 12 × 4

Ans	1. 35
	2. 28
	3. 30
	4. 6

Q.15	Select the numbers from among the given options that can replace the question marks (?) in the same sequence and make the series logically complete. 17, 18, 22, 31, ?, 72, ?, 157

Ans	1. 47, 108
	2. 47, 105
	3. 45, 107
	4. 49, 106

Q.16

Ans	1. 9
	2. 10
	3. 7
	4. 8

Q.17	Select the option in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers in the given set. (2, 7, 11) (13,17,29) (NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/subtracting/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)

Ans	1. (27, 31, 33)
	2. (37, 41, 49)
	3. (13, 17, 23)
	4. (3, 9, 11)

Q.18

Ans	1. 4, 1, 5, 3, 2
	2. 5, 2, 1, 3, 4
	3. 2, 3, 4, 5, 1
	4. 5, 2, 4, 1, 3

Q.19	Among seven people F, G, H, K, L, M and N, each has a different age. Only two people are older than M. Only two people are younger than K. The age of K is a multiple of 10. The youngest is 12 years old. F is the eldest. N is older than L, but younger than H. L is not the youngest. The sum of the ages of the youngest and second oldest person is 42 years. What can be the possible age of L?

Ans	1. 10 years
	2. 21 years
	3. 12 years
	4. 15 years

Q.20	Select the pair which is related to each other in the same way as the following – 12:168 11:145 (NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/subtracting/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)

Ans	1. 8:88
	2. 5:61
	3. 14:172
	4. 16:232

Q.21	Select the option that is related to the third word in the same way as the second word is related to the first word. (The words must be considered as meaningful English words and must not be related to each other based on the number of letters/number of consonants/vowels in the word.) Red Cross : Hospital :: Wheel : ?

Ans	1. Family planning
	2. Danger
	3. Progress
	4. Tardiness

Q.22	Select the figure from the options that can replace the question mark (?) and complete the given pattern.

Ans	1.
	2.
	3.
	4.

Q.23	Given below is a statement followed by two conclusions I and II. Study the statement carefully and decide which Conclusion/s is/are definitely true. Statement: M > N ≥ O ≤ P ≤ W; X ≥ O > Y Conclusion I : M > X Conclusion II : Y < W

Ans	1. Both Conclusions I and II are true.
	2. Only Conclusion I is true.
	3. Only Conclusion II is true.
	4. Neither Conclusion I nor II is true.

Q.24	What will be the day of the week on 14 September 3041?

Ans	1. Tuesday
	2. Monday
	3. Sunday
	4. Friday

Q.25	Which of the following numbers will replace the question mark (?) in the given series? 5, 14, 41, 122, 365, ?

Ans	1. 1490
	2. 1049
	3. 1940
	4. 1094

Q.26	How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters ‘EGMA’ using each letter exactly only once in each word?

Ans	1. 4
	2. 1
	3. 2
	4. 3

Q.27	If L means ÷, N means ×, P means + and J means −, which of the following interchanges should be done to hold the given equation 19 L 95 N 5 J 35 P 7 = 333 true?

Ans	1. (N and L)
	2. (P and N)
	3. (P and L)
	4. (J and N)

Q.28	Which of the following numbers will replace the question mark (?) in the given series? 23, 54, 81, 117, 137, 182, 191, ?

Ans	1. 245
	2. 294
	3. 254
	4. 249

Q.29

Ans	1.
	2.
	3.
	4.

Q.30	Select the pair from among the given options that is analogous to the given pair. 14 : 200 5 : 29 (NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/subtracting/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)

Ans	1. 15 : 230
	2. 11 : 120
	3. 16 : 260
	4. 7 : 50

Q.31	Three of the following four are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which is the one that does NOT belong to that group? (NOTE: The odd one out is not based on the number of vowels or consonants in the word)..

Ans	1. PRM
	2. DFA
	3. IKF
	4. SUQ

Q.32	AZ 1 is related to CX 3 in a certain way based on the English alpha-numerical order. In the same way, EV 5 is related to GT 7. To which of the following is IR 9 related, following the same logic?

Ans	1. PK 11
	2. MN 13
	3. KQ 11
	4. KP 11

Q.33	What should come in place of the question (?) in the given series based on the English alphabetical order? IGK, LJN, OMQ, RPT, ?

Ans	1. URW
	2. USW
	3. VSW
	4. VRW

Q.34	Select the option that is embedded in the given figure (rotation is NOT allowed).

Ans	1.
	2.
	3.
	4.

Q.35	Suresh is now 19 years old and in college. Since he was a 5-year-old, he stayed in a hostel and is now coming back home after 14 long years. His parents have texted him the direction from the railway station to his house. See the below text message sent to Suresh by his parents and answer the following question accordingly. “When you step out of the railway station, you are facing north. Take a right and drive 4 km, you will see a T-point/junction. Take a right and drive 2 km. There will be a roundabout with four roads. Take the second left from the round-about and drive 1 km. Take a right and drive 3 km. Take a left and drive 2 km. You will find our house at the front. Come home fast.” How many kilometres did Suresh drive after taking the second-left from the roundabout to reach his home by following the directions given by his parents?

Ans	1. 6
	2. 5
	3. 12
	4. 8

Q.36	What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation if ‘+’ and ‘×’ are interchanged and ‘−’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged? 5 + 3 × 2 ÷ 10 − 5 = ?

Ans	1. 13
	2. 12
	3. 15
	4. 10

Q.37	In this question, three statements are given, followed by three conclusions numbered I, II and III. Assuming the statements to be true, even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the conclusion(s) logically follows/follow from the statements. Statements: All pants are shirts. All shirts are jackets. Some jackets are sweaters. Conclusions: I. Some jackets are pants. II. Some sweaters are shirts. III. No pant is a sweater.

Ans	1. Only conclusion I follows.
	2. Both conclusions II and III follow.
	3. Both conclusions I and II follow.
	4. None of conclusions I, II or III follows.

Q.38	A is the mother of C who is not the son. C has a daughter E. A is married to F. F has a son B who has a son D. What is the relation of D and E?

Ans	1. Cousin
	2. Sister
	3. Daughter
	4. Mother

Q.39	Three statements are given, followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. Assuming the statements to be true, even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the conclusion(s) logically follow(s) from the statements. Statements: Some teachers are dancers. All dancers are beautiful. All teachers are honest. Conclusions: I. Some teachers are beautiful. II. Some dancers are honest.

Ans	1. Both conclusions I and II follow.
	2. Only conclusion II follows.
	3. Neither conclusion I nor II follows.
	4. Only conclusion I follows.

Q.40	Two statements are given, followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. Assuming the statements to be true, even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements. Statements: Some flowers are buds. Some flowers are trees. Conclusions: I. Some trees are buds. II. No tree is a bud.

Ans	1. Both conclusions I and II follow.
	2. Neither conclusion I nor II follows.
	3. Only conclusion II follows.
	4. Only conclusion I follows.

Q.41	A, B, C, X, Y and Z are sitting around a circular table facing the centre(but not necessarily in the same order). X sits to the immediate left of A. Only one person sits between X and Z. C sits second to the right of B. Y is not an immediate neighbour of A. Who is sitting to the immediate right of Z?

Ans	1. A
	2. C
	3. Y
	4. B

Q.42	Three of the following four letter-clusters are alike in a certain way and one is different. Pick the odd one out. (NOTE: The odd one out is not based on the number of vowels or consonants in the word)

Ans	1. JQLG
	2. SHQP
	3. FUHC
	4. WDYT

Q.43	Which two signs and which two numbers(not digits) should be interchanged to yield the value ‘zero’ for the following expression? 2 – 55 + 11 × 4 ÷ 18

Ans	1. + and ÷; 11 and 18
	2. – and ÷; 2 and 4
	3. + and ÷; 2 and 18
	4. × and – ; 4 and 11

Q.44	Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as the numbers of the following set. (9, 83, 164) (4, 18, 34) (NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/subtracting/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)

Ans	1. (6, 38, 74)
	2. (13, 167, 334)
	3. (5, 27, 56)
	4. (11, 122, 242)

Q.45	Select the option in which the given figure (X) is embedded (rotation is NOT allowed).

Ans	1.
	2.
	3.
	4.

Q.46	If X is the sister of Y, Z is the father of A and Y is the son of A, then how is Z related to X?

Ans	1. Father
	2. Grandfather
	3. Granddaughter
	4. Great grandfather

Q.47	In a certain code language, ‘PRICE’ is coded as EGRTK and ‘STAGE’ is coded as IGUVC. How will ‘RIGHT’ be coded in the same language?

Ans	1. GRVJG
	2. JVTKI
	3. GRVKG
	4. JVTKH

Q.48	Select the number from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series. 12, 16, 25, 50, 99, ?, 389

Ans	1. 180
	2. 200
	3. 220
	4. 240

Q.49	Select the triad from among the given options that is analogous to the given triad. 505 – 604 – 217

Ans	1. 161 – 512 – 710
	2. 432 – 513 – 711
	3. 244 – 226 – 262
	4. 125 – 223 – 342

Q.50	Select the option that is related to the third number in the same way as the second number is related to the first number and the sixth number is related to the fifth number. 16 : 85 :: 23 : ? :: 28 : 145 (NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/subtracting/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)

Ans	1. 105
	2. 120
	3. 150
	4. 135

Section : General Awareness

Q.1	Tanjore Balasaraswati was a dancer of which of the following dance forms?

Ans	1. Kuchipudi
	2. Mohiniyattam
	3. Kathak
	4. Bharatanatyam

Q.2	Padma Shri awardee Darshana Jhaveri is a famous ________ dancer.

Ans	1. Manipuri
	2. Sattriya
	3. Odissi
	4. Mohiniyattam

Q.3	Who used a home-made microscope to discover the invisible world of microbes, for which he is called the founding father of microbiology?

Ans	1. Antoni van Leeuwenhoek
	2. Rudolf Virchow
	3. Robert Brown
	4. Matthias Schleiden

Q.4

Ans	1. A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
	2. A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
	3. A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
	4. A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I

Q.5	Who among the following had written the novel ‘Untouchable’?

Ans	1. Mulk Raj Anand
	2. R K Narayan
	3. Raja Roy
	4. Harivansh Rai Bachchan

Q.6	In which of the following years was the Goods and Services Tax (Compensation to States) Bill passed?

Ans	1. 2002
	2. 2007
	3. 2014
	4. 2017

Q.7	In the context of a consumption function for an economy, if MPC = 0.6, then what is the likely value of MPS?

Ans	1. –0.6
	2. 0.4
	3. 0.36
	4. 0.16

Q.8	In December 2022, who was sworn in as the new Chief Minister of Himachal Pradesh?

Ans	1. Mukesh Agnihotri
	2. Jai Ram Thakur
	3. Pratibha Singh
	4. Sukhvinder Singh Sukhu

Q.9	What was the estimated growth target of the Second Five-Year Plan in India?

Ans	1.
	2.
	3.
	4.

Q.10	Which of the following states comes under the area of low rainfall?

Ans	1. Bihar
	2. Gujarat
	3. Tripura
	4. Meghalaya

Q.11	The team of which state has won the Women's U-18 Hockey in Khelo India Youth Games 2022?

Ans	1. Madhya Pradesh
	2. Haryana
	3. Jharkhand
	4. Odisha

Q.12	Aatmanirbhar Bharat Rojgar Yojana was implemented through which organisation?

Ans	1. India Post Payments Bank
	2. HDFC Bank
	3. Life Insurance Corporation
	4. Employees Provident Fund Organisation

Q.13	Six rights guaranteed by Article 19 can be suspended on the grounds of: 1. War 2. External aggression 3. Armed rebellion 4. Internal disturbance

Ans	1. 2, 3 and 4 only
	2. 1 and 2 both
	3. 2 and 3 both
	4. 4 only

Q.14	The Rashtrakuta king who conquered the Cholas was:

Ans	1. Rajaraja I
	2. Krishna III
	3. Rajendra
	4. Krishna I

Q.15	Who among the following is the author of the book ‘Mrs Funny Bones’?

Ans	1. Divya Dutta
	2. Tisca Chopra
	3. Twinkle Khanna
	4. Soha Ali Khan

Q.16	In which year did India host the Asian Games for the second time?

Ans	1. 1982
	2. 1986
	3. 1978
	4. 1990

Q.17	Which of the following Government of India Acts of British India proposed the All India Federation (Federation of India)?

Ans	1. 1853
	2. 1919
	3. 1858
	4. 1935

Q.18	According to the census of India 2011, among the following which state has the highest sex ratio?

Ans	1. Uttar Pradesh
	2. Bihar
	3. Andhra Pradesh
	4. Rajasthan

Q.19	The Nehru Trophy Boat Race is held in ________.

Ans	1. Andhra Pradesh
	2. Maharashtra
	3. Goa
	4. Kerala

Q.20	India won which of the following medals in the 2022 Asia Cup hockey tournament?

Ans	1. Gold
	2. None
	3. Bronze
	4. Silver

Q.21	What is the trade-strategy, which India adopted in the first-seven Five-Year Plans?

Ans	1. Partially inward-looking trade strategy
	2. Inward-looking trade strategy
	3. Outward-looking trade strategy
	4. Partially outward-looking trade strategy

Q.22	Which of the following is NOT a constitutional body?

Ans	1. Election Commission of India
	2. National Commission for Backward Classes
	3. Reserve bank of India
	4. Comptroller and Auditor-General of India

Q.23	Which of the cell organelles includes RNA?

Ans	1. Cell wall
	2. Cell base
	3. Cytoplasm
	4. Ribosome

Q.24	Which of the following are satellite ports?

Ans	1. Mormugao and New Mangalore port
	2. Nhava Sheva and Haldia
	3. Chennai and Mumbai
	4. Paradwip and Vishakhapatnam

Q.25	What happens to the motion of the particles as temperature rises?

Ans	1. The particles move in the same direction
	2. The particles slow down
	3. The particles stay stationery
	4. The particles move faster

Q.26	When and where was the first Wimbledon tournament held?

Ans	1. 1887, Worple Road Site, Wimbledon
	2. 1888, Church Road site, Wimbledon
	3. 1877, Worple Road Site, Wimbledon
	4. 1887, Church Road site, Wimbledon

Q.27	Tropical cyclones originate over which of the following regions?

Ans	1. Mediterranean Sea, Arabian Sea and the Indian Ocean
	2. Bay of Bengal, Arabian Sea and the Atlantic Ocean
	3. Bay of Bengal, Arabian Sea and the Indian Ocean
	4. Mediterranean Sea, Pacific Ocean and the Indian Ocean

Q.28	The ‘Aravalli’ is the name of a _________ in India.

Ans	1. mountain range
	2. lake
	3. plateau
	4. valley

Q.29	Who among the following is the author of the book ‘The House of Blue Mangoes’?

Ans	1. Arvind Adiga
	2. Sekhar Bandyopadhyay
	3. David Davidar
	4. Durjoy Data

Q.30	Select the correct alternative on the given statements based on Ashoka’s Lion capital and India’s State Emblem. Statement I: In the original Ashoka’s Lion Capital, there are four lions mounted back-to-back on a circular abacus that itself rests on a bell-shaped lotus. Statement II: The State Emblem is an adaptation of the Lion Capital of Asoka at Sarnath in which the bell-shaped lotus was omitted.

Ans	1. Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
	2. Only Statement I is true.
	3. Only Statement II is true.
	4. Neither Statement I nor Statement II is true.

Q.31	Who among the following is a Carnatic music vocalist?

Ans	1. Ravi Shankar
	2. M Balamuralikrishna
	3. Alla Rakha
	4. L Subramaniam

Q.32	Banabhatta was a court poet of Harshavardhana, who wrote a book called:

Ans	1. Nitisara
	2. Mudrarakshasa
	3. Harshacharita
	4. Arthashastra

Q.33

Ans	1. a-ii, b-iv, c-i, d-iii
	2. a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii
	3. a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii
	4. a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii

Q.34	Under which Act did the individual members of the Executive Council have their own portfolio?

Ans	1. The Indian Councils Act of 1892
	2. The Indian Councils Act of 1858
	3. The Indian Councils Act of 1909
	4. The Indian Councils Act of 1861

Q.35	With which of the following relief sculptures were the walls of the great Stupa of Amaravati in the Lower Godavari region adorned?

Ans	1. Alto-relievo
	2. Bas relief
	3. Sunken relief
	4. Freestanding

Q.36	Identify the element with an electronic configuration 2,8,1 from among the following options.

Ans	1. Hydrogen
	2. Sodium
	3. Magnesium
	4. Chlorine

Q.37	Which of the following processes occurs during decomposition in soil?

Ans	1. Humification
	2. Crystallisation
	3. Oxidation
	4. Defragmentation

Q.38	Which of the following is NOT a good conductor of electricity?

Ans	1. Silver
	2. Gold
	3. Aluminium
	4. Sulphur

Q.39	For which discovery in 1932 was James Chadwick best known?

Ans	1. Thermal ionization
	2. Wave theory of light
	3. Electron
	4. Neutron

Q.40	Which of the below is a psychological disorder of refusal to eat food, caused by under-nutrition?

Ans	1. Bulimia Nervosa
	2. Marasmus
	3. Anorexia Nervosa
	4. Kwashiorkor

Q.41	Which of the following is the correct formula for calculating gross primary deficit?

Ans	1. Gross fiscal deficit − Net interest liabilities
	2. Gross fiscal deficit − Borrowing from RBI
	3. Gross fiscal deficit − Borrowings from abroad
	4. Gross fiscal deficit + Net interest liabilities

Q.42	Which of the following Buddhist sages had initiated the Indo-Greek king Menander into Buddhism?

Ans	1. Asvaghosa
	2. Vasubandhu
	3. Sariputra
	4. Nagasena

Q.43	Pitt’s India Act was passed in which of the following years?

Ans	1. 1782
	2. 1784
	3. 1781
	4. 1780

Q.44	Who among the following politicians had written the autobiography ‘My Country My Life’?

Ans	1. I K Gujral
	2. Kapil Sibal
	3. Natwar Singh
	4. L K Advani

Q.45	The birth anniversary of Lord Jhulelal of the Sindhi community is also known as _________.

Ans	1. Jamshedi Navroj
	2. Chaliho Sahib
	3. Ulambana
	4. Cheti Chand

Q.46	Bade Ghulam Ali Khan, a Hindustani classical vocalist, belonged to which of the following Gharanas?

Ans	1. Patiala
	2. Gwalior
	3. Agra
	4. Kirana

Q.47	Under Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana, the maximum premium payable by the farmers will be _________ for horticulture crops.

Ans	1. 5%
	2. 6%
	3. 4%
	4. 3%

Q.48	Rubber is NOT a major cultivation of which of the following states of India?

Ans	1. Punjab
	2. Tamil Nadu
	3. Kerala
	4. Meghalaya

Q.49	The most important and widely celebrated festival of Kerela is _________.

Ans	1. Nuakhai
	2. Gudi Padwa
	3. Onam
	4. Ugadi

Q.50	Which of the following options represents the best choice for the Integrated Child Development Services (ICDS) Scheme?

Ans	1. Clothing support
	2. Travel support
	3. Home Support
	4. Nutrition support

Section : English Language and Comprehension

Q.1	The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error. You have said that, / as he took money from you many times, / he owes you / five thousand rupees all together.

Ans	1. five thousand rupees all together
	2. as he took money from you many times,
	3. he owes you
	4. You have said that,

Q.2	Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word. Admonish

Ans	1. Applaud
	2. Accede
	3. Abetment
	4. Abide

Q.3	Select the option that expresses the following sentence in active voice. The cake was baked by the chef in the kitchen.

Ans	1. The kitchen was baking the cake by the chef.
	2. The cake is being baked by the chef in the kitchen.
	3. The chef baked the cake in the kitchen.
	4. The cake was being baked by the chef in the kitchen.

Q.4	Given below are four jumbled sentences. Select the option that gives their correct logical sequence. A. However, the most consumed tea in the world is Indian tea. B. Tea was originated in China by its ruler, Shennong. C. India also has the credit of being the world’s largest producer. D. This is because of the tropical and sub-tropical climate present here.

Ans	1. ABCD
	2. BACD
	3. CBAD
	4. DCAB

Q.5	Select the option that expresses the given sentence in indirect speech. She said, “I have finished my work.”

Ans	1. She said that she has finished her work.
	2. She said that she will finish her work.
	3. She said that she had finished her work.
	4. She said that she would finish her work.

Q.6	Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the underlined word in the given sentence. The amateur proved them all wrong.

Ans	1. Chef
	2. Assistant
	3. Prefect
	4. Professional

Q.7	Select the grammatically correct sentence from the options given.

Ans	1. The troll, the boy shared on social media created a big laughter.
	2. The troll, a boy shared on an social media created a big laughter.
	3. A troll, a boy shared in on social media created an big laughter.
	4. An troll, the boy shared on the social media created the big laughter.

Q.8	Sentences of a paragraph are given below in jumbled order. Arrange the sentences in the correct order to form a meaningful and coherent paragraph. P. Applied arts require an object to be functional, as well as beautiful. Q. They recognised that their work belonged to the higher social classes who had the wealth to purchase art and the leisure time to enjoy it. R. Fine art is categorised as something which only has an aesthetic or conceptual function. S. There are a number of different categories of objects and processes under the umbrella term of art which need to be explored. T. In the twentieth century, artists began to challenge the established notion of art. U. Art is typically divided into two areas: fine art (such as painting, sculpture, music and poetry), and the applied arts (such as pottery, weaving, metal working, furniture making and calligraphy).

Ans	1. SUPQRT
	2. RPSTUQ
	3. SRPUTQ
	4. SURPTQ

Q.9	The following sentence has been divided into parts. One of them may contain an error. Select the part that contains the error from the given options. If you don’t find any error, mark ‘No error’ as your answer. Vishnu and his friends / were listening to / the radio all morning.

Ans	1. the radio all morning
	2. Vishnu and his friends
	3. were listening to
	4. No error

Q.10	Read the sentence carefully and select the most suitable idiom to fill in the blank. Extreme inflation in the country has led to a hike in the price of day-to-day commodity. It has made it difficult to __________.

Ans	1. break a leg
	2. keep body and soul together
	3. a blessing in disguise
	4. costs an arm and a leg

Q.11	Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank. I am _________ busy.

Ans	1. quiet
	2. tidily
	3. quite
	4. few

Q.12	Select the option that expresses the given sentence in indirect speech. She said to me, “I shall come to meet you tomorrow.”

Ans	1. She told me that she will come to meet me tomorrow.
	2. She tells me that she could come to meet me tomorrow.
	3. She told me that she would come to meet me the next day.
	4. She asked me that could she come to meet me the next day.

Q.13	Select the option that expresses the given sentence in indirect speech. My friend said to me, “Do you know the recipe of mango ice-cream?”

Ans	1. My friend asked me if I know the recipe of mango ice-cream.
	2. My friend asked me if I knew the recipe of mango ice-cream.
	3. My friend asked me that I know the recipe of mango ice-cream.
	4. My friend asked me that I knew the recipe of mango ice-cream.

Q.14	Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank. Online shopping refers to purchasing goods available on the world wide web. You have different websites which have a huge __________ of products that you can choose from.

Ans	1. assessment
	2. appraisal
	3. assortment
	4. assignment

Q.15	Select the option that expresses the given sentence in active voice. Some students are known to grow wise early.

Ans	1. Some students have been knowing that they grow wise early.
	2. Few of us know that students grow early.
	3. People know that some students grow wise early.
	4. We all know that students grew wise early.

Q.16	Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word. Amplify

Ans	1. Enrich
	2. Lessen
	3. Dislike
	4. Exaggerate

Q.17	Which of the following sentence is in the past continuous tense?

Ans	1. They were watching TV all evening.
	2. They shall be watching TV all evening.
	3. They watched TV all evening.
	4. They would have watched TV all evening.

Q.18	Select the option that expresses the given sentence in active voice. Devotional songs are sung superbly by Sastri.

Ans	1. Sastri is singing devotional songs superbly.
	2. Sastri has superbly sung devotional songs.
	3. Sastri has been singing devotional songs superbly.
	4. Sastri sings devotional songs superbly.

Q.19	Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. The patient couldn’t survive the injuries and succumbed with death.

Ans	1. succumbed by death
	2. succumbed in death
	3. succumbed to death
	4. succumbed into death

Q.20	Select the option that expresses the given sentence in active voice. The FIFA cup 2022 will be won by France.

Ans	1. France will win the FIFA cup 2022.
	2. France would win the FIFA cup 2022.
	3. France will be winning the FIFA cup 2022.
	4. France wins the FIFA cup 2022.

Q.21	Select the most appropriate meaning of the underlined idiom. Our neighbour told my brother to keep an eye on their pet dog in their absence.

Ans	1. To ignore something or someone
	2. To accomplish something too ambitious
	3. To look after something or someone
	4. To wait for something that is disturbing

Q.22	Select the option that expresses the given sentence in active voice. I am not forced to study hard by my parents.

Ans	1. My parents did not force me to study hard.
	2. My parents are not forcing me to study hard.
	3. My parents will not force me to study hard.
	4. My parents do not force me to study hard.

Q.23	Select the option that expresses the given sentence in reported speech. Raju said to Reghu, “Stay back.”

Ans	1. Raju orders Reghu to stay back.
	2. Raju ordered Reghu to stay back.
	3. Raju has ordered Reghu to stay back.
	4. Raju had ordered Reghu to stay back.

Q.24	Identify the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word. Reliable

Ans	1. Unfamiliar
	2. Untrustworthy
	3. Uncommon
	4. Unknown

Q.25	Identify the error in the given sentence and select the correct sentence from the given options. The earth has a exceptional structure which may have helped in life’s arrival.

Ans	1. An earth has an exceptional structure which may have helped in life’s arrival.
	2. An earth has exceptional structure which may have helped in life’s arrival.
	3. The earth has an exceptional structure which may have helped in life’s arrival.
	4. A earth has exceptional structure which may have helped in life’s arrival.

Q.26	Select the option that expresses the given sentence in passive voice. It is time to have tea.

Ans	1. It is time for tea to be had.
	2. Time must be taken to prepare tea.
	3. Tea is to be had.
	4. Tea is to be taken by it.

Q.27	Parts of the following sentence have been given as options. Select the option that contains an error. It became a known fact that they most played techno music at every party.

Ans	1. most
	2. that
	3. every
	4. at

Q.28	Identify the meaning of the idiom used in the following sentence. I am feeling a bit under the weather.

Ans	1. feeling lazy and bored
	2. feeling slightly ill
	3. feeling angry
	4. feeling energetic

Q.29	Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the word ‘Concur’ from the given sentence. Every time they met, he found it difficult to resist her odd magic.

Ans	1. met
	2. resist
	3. found
	4. difficult

Q.30	Select the option that expresses the given sentence in direct speech. She said she was seeing her brother the following day.

Ans	1. She says, “I will see my brother tomorrow.”
	2. She said, “ I am seeing my brother tomorrow.”
	3. She said, “I was seeing my brother tomorrow.”
	4. She said, "I should see my brother tomorrow.”

Q.31	Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank. It is terrible that education systems all over the world are being held in captivity due to poverty, both at the governmental and family levels, despite the fact that education is claimed to be so important for human progress and the _________ of global economies.

Ans	1. dismantling
	2. devastation
	3. abrogation
	4. revitalisation

Q.32	Identify the errors in the given sentence and choose the sentence that rectifies these errors. I have known her for many years. This time, she took unusual decision in unprejudiced way.

Ans	1. I have known her for many years. This time, she took an unusual decision in an unprejudiced way.
	2. I have known her for many years. This time, she took an unusual decision in a unprejudiced way.
	3. I have known her for many years. This time, she took unusual decision in an unprejudiced way.
	4. I have known her for many years. This time, she took a unusual decision in an unprejudiced way.

Q.33	Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the underlined word. Rukhsana was left alone in the house again, but fear was now her constant companion.

Ans	1. friendly
	2. steady
	3. changing
	4. boring

Q.34	Identify the error in the given sentence and select the option that correctly rectifies the error. PIEZO2 plays an critical role along with Piezo1 to regulate a important physiological process for brain to understand.

Ans	1. PIEZO2 plays the critical role along with Piezo1 to regulate the important physiological process for brain to understand.
	2. PIEZO2 plays an critical role along with Piezo1 to regulate the important physiological process for brain to understand.
	3. PIEZO2 plays a critical role along with Piezo1 to regulate an important physiological process for the brain to understand.
	4. PIEZO2 plays critical role along with Piezo1 to regulate a important physiological process for brain to understand.

Q.35	Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank. They could not reach the railway station before the train _______.

Ans	1. has leave
	2. left
	3. leave
	4. has been leaving

Q.36	Parts of a sentence are given below in jumbled order. Arrange the parts in the correct order to form a meaningful sentence. A: lost all his teeth B: cannot eat hard food C: he has D: consequently, he

Ans	1. CADB
	2. BDAC
	3. ADBC
	4. DACB

Q.37	Select the option that expresses the given sentence in passive form. Who took Bruno for a walk?

Ans	1. By whom was Bruno taken for a walk?
	2. By whom has Bruno been taken for a walk?
	3. By whom will Bruno be taken for a walk?
	4. With whom Bruno is taken for a walk?

Q.38	Select the option that expresses the following sentence in direct speech. They said that they had been waiting for the bus for over an hour.

Ans	1. “We waited for the bus for over an hour,” they said.
	2. “We have been waiting for the bus for over an hour,” they said.
	3. “We had waited for the bus for over an hour,” they said.
	4. “We are waiting for the bus for over an hour,” they said.

Q.39	Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the word given in the bracket to fill in the blank. The development of the region also depended on the ________ (rapaciousness) of the corporate contribution via a social responsibility scheme.

Ans	1. greed
	2. violence
	3. generosity
	4. voracity

Q.40	Select the option that correctly expresses the given sentence in active voice. The wounded woman was being helped by some youngsters.

Ans	1. Some youngsters have helped the wounded woman.
	2. The woman found help by some youngsters.
	3. Some youngsters were helping the wounded woman.
	4. Some youngsters helped the wounded woman.

Q.41	Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word. Ignoramus

Ans	1. Stupid
	2. Cautious
	3. Deceitful
	4. Playful

Q.42	Select the most appropriate adverb to fill in the blank. Over and _________ being hardworking, he is thoroughly honest.

Ans	1. over
	2. above
	3. again
	4. ever

Q.43	Parts of a sentence are given below in jumbled order. Select the option that arranges the parts in the correct sequence to form a meaningful sentence. (P) showcasing objects of historic, scientific and cultural interest (Q) by taking us back in time (R) museums are always (S) treasure troves of information

Ans	1. S, P, R, Q
	2. R, S, P, Q
	3. P, Q, S, R
	4. Q, S, P, R

Q.44	Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word. Hind

Ans	1. Ventral
	2. Rear
	3. Fore
	4. Anterior

Q.45	Select the option that expresses the given sentence in direct speech. She said that she could bake cookies.

Ans	1. She had said, “I can bake cookies.”
	2. She said, “I may bake cookies.”
	3. She says, “I can bake cookies.”
	4. She said, “I can bake cookies.”

Q.46	Parts of the following sentence have been given as options. Select the option that contains an error. He will has been helping me with tending to my plants.

Ans	1. to my plants
	2. helping me
	3. He will has been
	4. with tending

Q.47	Select the option that expresses the given sentence in direct speech. She asked me why I was not eating.

Ans	1. She said, “Why am I not eating?”
	2. She said, “Why are you not eating?”
	3. She said, “Why don’t you eat?”
	4. She said, “Why is he not eating?”

Q.48	Identify the errors in the given sentence and choose the sentence that rectifies these errors. My idea can be key idea for cracking difficult conflicts of extremely high level.

Ans	1. My idea can be an key idea for cracking difficult conflicts of an extremely high level.
	2. My idea can be key idea for cracking difficult conflicts of an extremely high level.
	3. My idea can be a key idea for cracking difficult conflicts of a extremely high level.
	4. My idea can be a key idea for cracking difficult conflicts of an extremely high level.

Q.49	Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word. Vanquish

Ans	1. Conquer
	2. Verify
	3. Describe
	4. Quantify

Q.50	Select the most appropriate meaning of the underlined idiom in the given sentence. He goes hard with one and all.

Ans	1. To be difficult
	2. To be unreliable
	3. To be busy over trifles
	4. To remain neutral

Q.51	Select the option that expresses the given sentence in indirect speech. "I am playing the keyboard," she explained.

Ans	1. She explained that she was playing the keyboard.
	2. She explained that she is playing the keyboard.
	3. She said that she is playing the keyboard.
	4. She said that she had been playing the keyboard.

Q.52	Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. Elegance and intelligence had the two most important traits of young ladies.

Ans	1. has been the
	2. been the
	3. am being the
	4. are the

Q.53	Choose the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom. To get wind of

Ans	1. To get into difficulty
	2. To escape so that you don't have to pay
	3. To recover from something
	4. To hear a piece of information that someone was trying to keep secret

Q.54	Select the option that gives the most appropriate meaning of the underlined word. The patient absconded from the hospital at dawn.

Ans	1. Learned to communicate with others
	2. Collected acknowledgement of the payment
	3. Faced lack of cooperation from the nurse
	4. Fled away hurriedly and secretly

Q.55	Select the option that expresses the given sentence in indirect speech. He said, “I have finished my homework.”

Ans	1. He said that he would finish his homework.
	2. He said that he had to finish his homework.
	3. He said that he has finished his homework.
	4. He said that he had finished his homework.

Q.56	Select the option that expresses the given in indirect speech . The customer asked the tailor, “Will you have the dress ready by Tuesday?”

Ans	1. The customer asked the tailor if he would like to have the dress ready by Tuesday.
	2. The customer asked the tailor if he will have the dress ready by Tuesday.
	3. The customer asked the tailor if he would have the dress ready by Tuesday.
	4. The customer asked the tailor if he should have the dress ready by Tuesday.

Q.57	The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error. That accident happened [A] /a long time ago, but [B] / I have shivered at [C] / the thought of it ever for [D].

Ans	1. D
	2. B
	3. A
	4. C

Q.58	Parts of sentences are given below in jumbled order. Arrange the parts in the correct order to form a meaningful paragraph. The first part 'R.' is fixed. R. Men usually make more decisions A. and certainly the most important ones B. earning a livelihood in most parts of the world C. since men play a bigger role in D. they have a major say in economic matters

Ans	1. BADC
	2. ACBD
	3. ACDB
	4. DCAB

Q.59	Select the option that expresses the given sentence in active voice. Parents should be respected by their children.

Ans	1. Children are to respect their parents.
	2. Children should be respecting their parents.
	3. Children shall be respecting their parents.
	4. Children should respect their parents.

Q.60	Parts of a sentence are given below in jumbled order. Select the option that arranges the parts in the correct sequence to form a meaningful sentence. (P) the south pole of the Moon (Q) and where no man has ever been before (R) the Artemis mission will explore (S) where ice has been confirmed to exist within craters

Ans	1. P, R, Q, S
	2. R, P, S, Q
	3. Q, P, S, R
	4. S, R, Q, P

Q.61	Select the correct alternative from the given options that correctly changes the form of narration in the given sentence. The solicitor said, “Let us solve the dispute over the land.”

Ans	1. The solicitor ordered that we should solve the dispute over the land.
	2. The solicitor suggested that they might solve the dispute over the land.
	3. The solicitor suggested that they should solve the dispute over the land.
	4. The solicitor wished that they should solve the dispute over the land.

Q.62	Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word. Admiration

Ans	1. Diminish
	2. Cognisance
	3. Contempt
	4. Accomplish

Q.63	Select the option that expresses the given sentence in active voice. A selected group of activists had been invited by the minister before the announcement of the strike.

Ans	1. The minister invited a selected group of activists before the announcement of the strike.
	2. The minister had been inviting a selected group of activists before the announcement of the strike.
	3. The minister had invited a selected group of activists before the announcement of the strike.
	4. The minister was inviting a selected group of activists before the announcement of the strike.

Q.64	Select the option that gives the most appropriate meaning of the underlined word. Even amidst the all-pervasive silence, the noise inside her head seemed incessant.

Ans	1. To occur at irregular intervals or occasionally
	2. To impact in a strikingly negative way
	3. To follow an unknown course
	4. To continue without any interruption

Q.65	Select the most appropriate idiom that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. Unless sales improve next month, the company will be in a critical position in which failure seems imminent.

Ans	1. a mare's nest
	2. a damp squib
	3. up against the wall
	4. hitting the sack

Q.66	Select the option that will improve the underlined part of the given sentence. He was the most cleverest man I ever knew.

Ans	1. more clever
	2. cleverest
	3. most cleverer
	4. cleverer

Q.67	Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank. Technology has made it possible for us to reach out to more students, and it has also made it possible for us to deliver the same lessons in a much more __________ manner.

Ans	1. incompetent
	2. resourceful
	3. lumbering
	4. encumbering

Q.68	Select the option that expresses the given sentence in passive voice. She is doing the homework.

Ans	1. The homework has been done by her.
	2. The homework is being done by her.
	3. The homework was being done by her.
	4. The homework was done by her.

Q.69	The given sentence is divided into four segments. Select the option that has the segment with a grammatical error. He will / come when / he will be / ready.

Ans	1. come when
	2. ready.
	3. He will
	4. he will be

Q.70	Select the option that expresses the given sentence in passive voice. Malathi loves Reena.

Ans	1. Reena is being loved by Malathi.
	2. Reena is loved by Malathi.
	3. Reena was being loved by Malathi.
	4. Reena was loved by Malathi.

	Comprehension:
	In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in each blank. Earthquakes represent a highly consequential and perilous category of (1)__________ disasters. These phenomena arise as a result of several variables and result in subsequent consequences. An earthquake refers to the abrupt release of accumulated strain (2)_________ within the Earth's crust, leading to seismic shaking that propagates outward from the (3)________. In essence, seismic activity refers to the abrupt displacement of the Earth's surface, commonly referred to as an earthquake, tremor or temblor. Earthquakes exhibit a range of magnitudes, encompassing both imperceptible tremors and catastrophic events capable of causing (4)__________ urban devastation. Seismicity refers to the occurrence, magnitude and classification of earthquakes. Earthquakes can also arise as a (5)___________ of volcanic activity. Moreover, these phenomena have diverse impacts that disrupt both individuals' livelihoods and physical assets.

	SubQuestion No : 71
Q.71	Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1.

Ans	1. unrealistic
	2. artificial
	3. natural
	4. unnatural

	Comprehension:
	In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in each blank. Earthquakes represent a highly consequential and perilous category of (1)__________ disasters. These phenomena arise as a result of several variables and result in subsequent consequences. An earthquake refers to the abrupt release of accumulated strain (2)_________ within the Earth's crust, leading to seismic shaking that propagates outward from the (3)________. In essence, seismic activity refers to the abrupt displacement of the Earth's surface, commonly referred to as an earthquake, tremor or temblor. Earthquakes exhibit a range of magnitudes, encompassing both imperceptible tremors and catastrophic events capable of causing (4)__________ urban devastation. Seismicity refers to the occurrence, magnitude and classification of earthquakes. Earthquakes can also arise as a (5)___________ of volcanic activity. Moreover, these phenomena have diverse impacts that disrupt both individuals' livelihoods and physical assets.

	SubQuestion No : 72
Q.72	Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2.

Ans	1. metal
	2. energy
	3. light
	4. mineral

	Comprehension:
	In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in each blank. Earthquakes represent a highly consequential and perilous category of (1)__________ disasters. These phenomena arise as a result of several variables and result in subsequent consequences. An earthquake refers to the abrupt release of accumulated strain (2)_________ within the Earth's crust, leading to seismic shaking that propagates outward from the (3)________. In essence, seismic activity refers to the abrupt displacement of the Earth's surface, commonly referred to as an earthquake, tremor or temblor. Earthquakes exhibit a range of magnitudes, encompassing both imperceptible tremors and catastrophic events capable of causing (4)__________ urban devastation. Seismicity refers to the occurrence, magnitude and classification of earthquakes. Earthquakes can also arise as a (5)___________ of volcanic activity. Moreover, these phenomena have diverse impacts that disrupt both individuals' livelihoods and physical assets.

	SubQuestion No : 73
Q.73	Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3.

Ans	1. middleman
	2. paradoxical
	3. opened
	4. epicentre

	Comprehension:
	In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in each blank. Earthquakes represent a highly consequential and perilous category of (1)__________ disasters. These phenomena arise as a result of several variables and result in subsequent consequences. An earthquake refers to the abrupt release of accumulated strain (2)_________ within the Earth's crust, leading to seismic shaking that propagates outward from the (3)________. In essence, seismic activity refers to the abrupt displacement of the Earth's surface, commonly referred to as an earthquake, tremor or temblor. Earthquakes exhibit a range of magnitudes, encompassing both imperceptible tremors and catastrophic events capable of causing (4)__________ urban devastation. Seismicity refers to the occurrence, magnitude and classification of earthquakes. Earthquakes can also arise as a (5)___________ of volcanic activity. Moreover, these phenomena have diverse impacts that disrupt both individuals' livelihoods and physical assets.

	SubQuestion No : 74
Q.74	Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4.

Ans	1. minimal
	2. limited
	3. extensive
	4. small

	Comprehension:
	In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in each blank. Earthquakes represent a highly consequential and perilous category of (1)__________ disasters. These phenomena arise as a result of several variables and result in subsequent consequences. An earthquake refers to the abrupt release of accumulated strain (2)_________ within the Earth's crust, leading to seismic shaking that propagates outward from the (3)________. In essence, seismic activity refers to the abrupt displacement of the Earth's surface, commonly referred to as an earthquake, tremor or temblor. Earthquakes exhibit a range of magnitudes, encompassing both imperceptible tremors and catastrophic events capable of causing (4)__________ urban devastation. Seismicity refers to the occurrence, magnitude and classification of earthquakes. Earthquakes can also arise as a (5)___________ of volcanic activity. Moreover, these phenomena have diverse impacts that disrupt both individuals' livelihoods and physical assets.

	SubQuestion No : 75
Q.75	Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 5.

Ans	1. classification
	2. consequence
	3. name
	4. direction

	Comprehension:
	In the following passage some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in each blank. Frogs are the amphibians. It indicates that they are (1)_______ of living both in water and on land. Frogs have long back legs that propel them into the air, making them excellent jumpers. A large portion of them have suckers on their fingers, which assist them with landing securely on tricky surfaces. They find quick bugs, with the (2)_______ of their long tacky tongues. Frogs do not all contain poison. When threatened by predators, some frogs use a venom that they have developed. The golden dart frog is the world’s most lethal frog. One frog’s skin has the potential to kill up to 1,000 people. The normal frog contains a toxic substance, which it (3)_______ from its skin, when gone after. This poison affects both canines and felines. However, they rarely experience serious (4)______. Cane toads are extremely large toads that are laced with drugs. If taken, these drugs can result in hallucinations. Central and South America are home to the poison dart frogs. Because indigenous people use their toxic excretions to (5)______ the tips of arrows and blow darts, the frogs are frequently referred to as poison arrow frogs or poison dart frogs.

	SubQuestion No : 76
Q.76	Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1.

Ans	1. susceptible
	2. incline
	3. capable
	4. dispose

	Comprehension:
	In the following passage some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in each blank. Frogs are the amphibians. It indicates that they are (1)_______ of living both in water and on land. Frogs have long back legs that propel them into the air, making them excellent jumpers. A large portion of them have suckers on their fingers, which assist them with landing securely on tricky surfaces. They find quick bugs, with the (2)_______ of their long tacky tongues. Frogs do not all contain poison. When threatened by predators, some frogs use a venom that they have developed. The golden dart frog is the world’s most lethal frog. One frog’s skin has the potential to kill up to 1,000 people. The normal frog contains a toxic substance, which it (3)_______ from its skin, when gone after. This poison affects both canines and felines. However, they rarely experience serious (4)______. Cane toads are extremely large toads that are laced with drugs. If taken, these drugs can result in hallucinations. Central and South America are home to the poison dart frogs. Because indigenous people use their toxic excretions to (5)______ the tips of arrows and blow darts, the frogs are frequently referred to as poison arrow frogs or poison dart frogs.

	SubQuestion No : 77
Q.77	Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2.

Ans	1. assistance
	2. backing
	3. excuse
	4. encouragement

	Comprehension:
	In the following passage some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in each blank. Frogs are the amphibians. It indicates that they are (1)_______ of living both in water and on land. Frogs have long back legs that propel them into the air, making them excellent jumpers. A large portion of them have suckers on their fingers, which assist them with landing securely on tricky surfaces. They find quick bugs, with the (2)_______ of their long tacky tongues. Frogs do not all contain poison. When threatened by predators, some frogs use a venom that they have developed. The golden dart frog is the world’s most lethal frog. One frog’s skin has the potential to kill up to 1,000 people. The normal frog contains a toxic substance, which it (3)_______ from its skin, when gone after. This poison affects both canines and felines. However, they rarely experience serious (4)______. Cane toads are extremely large toads that are laced with drugs. If taken, these drugs can result in hallucinations. Central and South America are home to the poison dart frogs. Because indigenous people use their toxic excretions to (5)______ the tips of arrows and blow darts, the frogs are frequently referred to as poison arrow frogs or poison dart frogs.

	SubQuestion No : 78
Q.78	Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3.

Ans	1. squeaks
	2. radiates
	3. spells
	4. glows

	Comprehension:
	In the following passage some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in each blank. Frogs are the amphibians. It indicates that they are (1)_______ of living both in water and on land. Frogs have long back legs that propel them into the air, making them excellent jumpers. A large portion of them have suckers on their fingers, which assist them with landing securely on tricky surfaces. They find quick bugs, with the (2)_______ of their long tacky tongues. Frogs do not all contain poison. When threatened by predators, some frogs use a venom that they have developed. The golden dart frog is the world’s most lethal frog. One frog’s skin has the potential to kill up to 1,000 people. The normal frog contains a toxic substance, which it (3)_______ from its skin, when gone after. This poison affects both canines and felines. However, they rarely experience serious (4)______. Cane toads are extremely large toads that are laced with drugs. If taken, these drugs can result in hallucinations. Central and South America are home to the poison dart frogs. Because indigenous people use their toxic excretions to (5)______ the tips of arrows and blow darts, the frogs are frequently referred to as poison arrow frogs or poison dart frogs.

	SubQuestion No : 79
Q.79	Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4.

Ans	1. consequences
	2. alters
	3. sequels
	4. disturbs

	Comprehension:
	In the following passage some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in each blank. Frogs are the amphibians. It indicates that they are (1)_______ of living both in water and on land. Frogs have long back legs that propel them into the air, making them excellent jumpers. A large portion of them have suckers on their fingers, which assist them with landing securely on tricky surfaces. They find quick bugs, with the (2)_______ of their long tacky tongues. Frogs do not all contain poison. When threatened by predators, some frogs use a venom that they have developed. The golden dart frog is the world’s most lethal frog. One frog’s skin has the potential to kill up to 1,000 people. The normal frog contains a toxic substance, which it (3)_______ from its skin, when gone after. This poison affects both canines and felines. However, they rarely experience serious (4)______. Cane toads are extremely large toads that are laced with drugs. If taken, these drugs can result in hallucinations. Central and South America are home to the poison dart frogs. Because indigenous people use their toxic excretions to (5)______ the tips of arrows and blow darts, the frogs are frequently referred to as poison arrow frogs or poison dart frogs.

	SubQuestion No : 80
Q.80	Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 5.

Ans	1. malice
	2. hate
	3. bane
	4. poison

	Comprehension:
	In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in each blank. For most of us who are born and live in India, social inequality and (1)_____are facts of life. We see (2)___ on the streets and on railway platforms. We see young children (3)____ as domestic workers, construction helpers, cleaners and helpers in streetside restaurants (dhabas) and tea-shops. We are not (4)____ at the sight of small children, who work as domestic workers in middle class urban homes, carrying the school bags of older children to school. It does not immediately (5)_______ us as unjust that some children are denied schooling.

	SubQuestion No : 81
Q.81	Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1.

Ans	1. mobility
	2. harmony
	3. gatherings
	4. exclusion

	Comprehension:
	In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in each blank. For most of us who are born and live in India, social inequality and (1)_____are facts of life. We see (2)___ on the streets and on railway platforms. We see young children (3)____ as domestic workers, construction helpers, cleaners and helpers in streetside restaurants (dhabas) and tea-shops. We are not (4)____ at the sight of small children, who work as domestic workers in middle class urban homes, carrying the school bags of older children to school. It does not immediately (5)_______ us as unjust that some children are denied schooling.

	SubQuestion No : 82
Q.82	Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2.

Ans	1. parliaments
	2. vehicles
	3. beggars
	4. airports

	Comprehension:
	In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in each blank. For most of us who are born and live in India, social inequality and (1)_____are facts of life. We see (2)___ on the streets and on railway platforms. We see young children (3)____ as domestic workers, construction helpers, cleaners and helpers in streetside restaurants (dhabas) and tea-shops. We are not (4)____ at the sight of small children, who work as domestic workers in middle class urban homes, carrying the school bags of older children to school. It does not immediately (5)_______ us as unjust that some children are denied schooling.

	SubQuestion No : 83
Q.83	Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3.

Ans	1. cheating
	2. excelling
	3. revolting
	4. labouring

	Comprehension:
	In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in each blank. For most of us who are born and live in India, social inequality and (1)_____are facts of life. We see (2)___ on the streets and on railway platforms. We see young children (3)____ as domestic workers, construction helpers, cleaners and helpers in streetside restaurants (dhabas) and tea-shops. We are not (4)____ at the sight of small children, who work as domestic workers in middle class urban homes, carrying the school bags of older children to school. It does not immediately (5)_______ us as unjust that some children are denied schooling.

	SubQuestion No : 84
Q.84	Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4.

Ans	1. afraid
	2. composed
	3. envious
	4. surprised

	Comprehension:
	In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in each blank. For most of us who are born and live in India, social inequality and (1)_____are facts of life. We see (2)___ on the streets and on railway platforms. We see young children (3)____ as domestic workers, construction helpers, cleaners and helpers in streetside restaurants (dhabas) and tea-shops. We are not (4)____ at the sight of small children, who work as domestic workers in middle class urban homes, carrying the school bags of older children to school. It does not immediately (5)_______ us as unjust that some children are denied schooling.

	SubQuestion No : 85
Q.85	Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 5.

Ans	1. touch
	2. force
	3. slap
	4. strike

	Comprehension:
	In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in each blank. Research on infections over the past few decades has focused on hospitals, day-care facilities and schools, but (1)_____ attention was paid to the home. Today, the increase of foodborne illness and a (2)_____ need for home health care have focused interest on hygiene and cleanliness in the home. ‘Hygiene’ refers to conditions or practices by which people maintain or promote good health by keeping themselves and their surroundings (3)____. Even in our contemporary society, good hygiene practices continue to be the primary disease-prevention strategy. Hygiene is one of the silent victories of public health. Personal hygiene and household cleanliness practices affect the risk (4)____spreading infectious disease. There are many disease-causing microbes whose transmission can be controlled by proper personal hygiene and household cleaning practices. A framework for developing practical home strategies to manage risk from infections is (5)_____.

	SubQuestion No : 86
Q.86	Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no. 1.

Ans	1. a little
	2. the little
	3. no little
	4. little

	Comprehension:
	In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in each blank. Research on infections over the past few decades has focused on hospitals, day-care facilities and schools, but (1)_____ attention was paid to the home. Today, the increase of foodborne illness and a (2)_____ need for home health care have focused interest on hygiene and cleanliness in the home. ‘Hygiene’ refers to conditions or practices by which people maintain or promote good health by keeping themselves and their surroundings (3)____. Even in our contemporary society, good hygiene practices continue to be the primary disease-prevention strategy. Hygiene is one of the silent victories of public health. Personal hygiene and household cleanliness practices affect the risk (4)____spreading infectious disease. There are many disease-causing microbes whose transmission can be controlled by proper personal hygiene and household cleaning practices. A framework for developing practical home strategies to manage risk from infections is (5)_____.

	SubQuestion No : 87
Q.87	Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no. 2.

Ans	1. decreasing
	2. growing
	3. declining
	4. rare

	Comprehension:
	In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in each blank. Research on infections over the past few decades has focused on hospitals, day-care facilities and schools, but (1)_____ attention was paid to the home. Today, the increase of foodborne illness and a (2)_____ need for home health care have focused interest on hygiene and cleanliness in the home. ‘Hygiene’ refers to conditions or practices by which people maintain or promote good health by keeping themselves and their surroundings (3)____. Even in our contemporary society, good hygiene practices continue to be the primary disease-prevention strategy. Hygiene is one of the silent victories of public health. Personal hygiene and household cleanliness practices affect the risk (4)____spreading infectious disease. There are many disease-causing microbes whose transmission can be controlled by proper personal hygiene and household cleaning practices. A framework for developing practical home strategies to manage risk from infections is (5)_____.

	SubQuestion No : 88
Q.88	Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no. 3.

Ans	1. cluttered
	2. clear
	3. close
	4. clean

	Comprehension:
	In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in each blank. Research on infections over the past few decades has focused on hospitals, day-care facilities and schools, but (1)_____ attention was paid to the home. Today, the increase of foodborne illness and a (2)_____ need for home health care have focused interest on hygiene and cleanliness in the home. ‘Hygiene’ refers to conditions or practices by which people maintain or promote good health by keeping themselves and their surroundings (3)____. Even in our contemporary society, good hygiene practices continue to be the primary disease-prevention strategy. Hygiene is one of the silent victories of public health. Personal hygiene and household cleanliness practices affect the risk (4)____spreading infectious disease. There are many disease-causing microbes whose transmission can be controlled by proper personal hygiene and household cleaning practices. A framework for developing practical home strategies to manage risk from infections is (5)_____.

	SubQuestion No : 89
Q.89	Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no. 4.

Ans	1. for
	2. of
	3. about
	4. at

	Comprehension:
	In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in each blank. Research on infections over the past few decades has focused on hospitals, day-care facilities and schools, but (1)_____ attention was paid to the home. Today, the increase of foodborne illness and a (2)_____ need for home health care have focused interest on hygiene and cleanliness in the home. ‘Hygiene’ refers to conditions or practices by which people maintain or promote good health by keeping themselves and their surroundings (3)____. Even in our contemporary society, good hygiene practices continue to be the primary disease-prevention strategy. Hygiene is one of the silent victories of public health. Personal hygiene and household cleanliness practices affect the risk (4)____spreading infectious disease. There are many disease-causing microbes whose transmission can be controlled by proper personal hygiene and household cleaning practices. A framework for developing practical home strategies to manage risk from infections is (5)_____.

	SubQuestion No : 90
Q.90	Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no. 5.

Ans	1. impossible
	2. ineffective
	3. risky
	4. required

	Comprehension:
	Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow. Financial literacy is the ability to understand and effectively use financial skills. These financial skills are as simple as budgeting, investing, credit management, and financial management. In other words, financial literacy is the ability to manage money. A strong foundation of these financial skills will help in achieving various life goals like retirement, education, and even going on a vacation. Financial literacy includes many skills. However, the most popular ones are budgeting, managing expenses, paying off debt, and understanding the risk-return trade-off in investment products. Acquiring these skills would require one to understand the basic financial concepts like time value of money, compound interest, annualised return, and opportunity cost. With an abundance of credit products available in the market, like credit card debt, overdraft facility on debit cards, and EMI, financial literacy becomes important. Understanding debt and having basic financial knowledge will help individuals to use these products responsibly. Financial literacy often teaches individuals how to make major financial decisions. Moreover, it increases financial discipline and financial capability. This will lead to major lifestyle changes like saving and investing regularly, managing debts effectively and fulfilling life goals efficiently. Additionally, financial literacy will ensure one’s financial wellbeing and also protect individuals from financial frauds. Lacking the knowledge of these skills leads to financial illiteracy. Financial illiteracy leads to budget mismatch, higher expenses than income, accumulation of debts, poor credit score, being victims to financial frauds, and other negative consequences. Financial literacy is important because it equips one with the knowledge and skill to manage money effectively. Without financial literacy, the actions and decisions one makes or do not make with respect to savings and investments would lack a strong foundation. Financial literacy helps in understanding financial concepts better and enables one to manage their finances efficiently. Furthermore, it helps in effective money management, making financial decisions, and achieving financial stability. Moreover, financial literacy provides in-depth knowledge of financial education and various strategies that are indispensable for financial growth and success. Also, it enables one to be debt free by adopting the best debt strategies.

	SubQuestion No : 91
Q.91	Which of the following is NOT a result of financial illiteracy?

Ans	1. Accumulation of debts
	2. Financial discipline
	3. Budget mismatch
	4. Higher expense than income

	Comprehension:
	Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow. Financial literacy is the ability to understand and effectively use financial skills. These financial skills are as simple as budgeting, investing, credit management, and financial management. In other words, financial literacy is the ability to manage money. A strong foundation of these financial skills will help in achieving various life goals like retirement, education, and even going on a vacation. Financial literacy includes many skills. However, the most popular ones are budgeting, managing expenses, paying off debt, and understanding the risk-return trade-off in investment products. Acquiring these skills would require one to understand the basic financial concepts like time value of money, compound interest, annualised return, and opportunity cost. With an abundance of credit products available in the market, like credit card debt, overdraft facility on debit cards, and EMI, financial literacy becomes important. Understanding debt and having basic financial knowledge will help individuals to use these products responsibly. Financial literacy often teaches individuals how to make major financial decisions. Moreover, it increases financial discipline and financial capability. This will lead to major lifestyle changes like saving and investing regularly, managing debts effectively and fulfilling life goals efficiently. Additionally, financial literacy will ensure one’s financial wellbeing and also protect individuals from financial frauds. Lacking the knowledge of these skills leads to financial illiteracy. Financial illiteracy leads to budget mismatch, higher expenses than income, accumulation of debts, poor credit score, being victims to financial frauds, and other negative consequences. Financial literacy is important because it equips one with the knowledge and skill to manage money effectively. Without financial literacy, the actions and decisions one makes or do not make with respect to savings and investments would lack a strong foundation. Financial literacy helps in understanding financial concepts better and enables one to manage their finances efficiently. Furthermore, it helps in effective money management, making financial decisions, and achieving financial stability. Moreover, financial literacy provides in-depth knowledge of financial education and various strategies that are indispensable for financial growth and success. Also, it enables one to be debt free by adopting the best debt strategies.

	SubQuestion No : 92
Q.92	Which of the following statement would the author of the above passage agree to?

Ans	1. Important life goals and ambitions are not typically related to financial skills.
	2. Financial literacy cannot help in budgeting and paying off the debts.
	3. Effective money management skills enable early retirement.
	4. Financial literacy is important only for those who are materialistic.

	Comprehension:
	Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow. Financial literacy is the ability to understand and effectively use financial skills. These financial skills are as simple as budgeting, investing, credit management, and financial management. In other words, financial literacy is the ability to manage money. A strong foundation of these financial skills will help in achieving various life goals like retirement, education, and even going on a vacation. Financial literacy includes many skills. However, the most popular ones are budgeting, managing expenses, paying off debt, and understanding the risk-return trade-off in investment products. Acquiring these skills would require one to understand the basic financial concepts like time value of money, compound interest, annualised return, and opportunity cost. With an abundance of credit products available in the market, like credit card debt, overdraft facility on debit cards, and EMI, financial literacy becomes important. Understanding debt and having basic financial knowledge will help individuals to use these products responsibly. Financial literacy often teaches individuals how to make major financial decisions. Moreover, it increases financial discipline and financial capability. This will lead to major lifestyle changes like saving and investing regularly, managing debts effectively and fulfilling life goals efficiently. Additionally, financial literacy will ensure one’s financial wellbeing and also protect individuals from financial frauds. Lacking the knowledge of these skills leads to financial illiteracy. Financial illiteracy leads to budget mismatch, higher expenses than income, accumulation of debts, poor credit score, being victims to financial frauds, and other negative consequences. Financial literacy is important because it equips one with the knowledge and skill to manage money effectively. Without financial literacy, the actions and decisions one makes or do not make with respect to savings and investments would lack a strong foundation. Financial literacy helps in understanding financial concepts better and enables one to manage their finances efficiently. Furthermore, it helps in effective money management, making financial decisions, and achieving financial stability. Moreover, financial literacy provides in-depth knowledge of financial education and various strategies that are indispensable for financial growth and success. Also, it enables one to be debt free by adopting the best debt strategies.

	SubQuestion No : 93
Q.93	Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word with reference to its usage in the passage. Stability

Ans	1. Inefficacy
	2. Ambiguity
	3. Steadiness
	4. Volatility

	Comprehension:
	Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow. Financial literacy is the ability to understand and effectively use financial skills. These financial skills are as simple as budgeting, investing, credit management, and financial management. In other words, financial literacy is the ability to manage money. A strong foundation of these financial skills will help in achieving various life goals like retirement, education, and even going on a vacation. Financial literacy includes many skills. However, the most popular ones are budgeting, managing expenses, paying off debt, and understanding the risk-return trade-off in investment products. Acquiring these skills would require one to understand the basic financial concepts like time value of money, compound interest, annualised return, and opportunity cost. With an abundance of credit products available in the market, like credit card debt, overdraft facility on debit cards, and EMI, financial literacy becomes important. Understanding debt and having basic financial knowledge will help individuals to use these products responsibly. Financial literacy often teaches individuals how to make major financial decisions. Moreover, it increases financial discipline and financial capability. This will lead to major lifestyle changes like saving and investing regularly, managing debts effectively and fulfilling life goals efficiently. Additionally, financial literacy will ensure one’s financial wellbeing and also protect individuals from financial frauds. Lacking the knowledge of these skills leads to financial illiteracy. Financial illiteracy leads to budget mismatch, higher expenses than income, accumulation of debts, poor credit score, being victims to financial frauds, and other negative consequences. Financial literacy is important because it equips one with the knowledge and skill to manage money effectively. Without financial literacy, the actions and decisions one makes or do not make with respect to savings and investments would lack a strong foundation. Financial literacy helps in understanding financial concepts better and enables one to manage their finances efficiently. Furthermore, it helps in effective money management, making financial decisions, and achieving financial stability. Moreover, financial literacy provides in-depth knowledge of financial education and various strategies that are indispensable for financial growth and success. Also, it enables one to be debt free by adopting the best debt strategies.

	SubQuestion No : 94
Q.94	Select the most appropriate title for the passage.

Ans	1. Why is Financial Illiteracy Important
	2. Making Financial Decisions
	3. Tips for Financial Growth
	4. The Importance of Financial Literacy

	Comprehension:
	Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow. Financial literacy is the ability to understand and effectively use financial skills. These financial skills are as simple as budgeting, investing, credit management, and financial management. In other words, financial literacy is the ability to manage money. A strong foundation of these financial skills will help in achieving various life goals like retirement, education, and even going on a vacation. Financial literacy includes many skills. However, the most popular ones are budgeting, managing expenses, paying off debt, and understanding the risk-return trade-off in investment products. Acquiring these skills would require one to understand the basic financial concepts like time value of money, compound interest, annualised return, and opportunity cost. With an abundance of credit products available in the market, like credit card debt, overdraft facility on debit cards, and EMI, financial literacy becomes important. Understanding debt and having basic financial knowledge will help individuals to use these products responsibly. Financial literacy often teaches individuals how to make major financial decisions. Moreover, it increases financial discipline and financial capability. This will lead to major lifestyle changes like saving and investing regularly, managing debts effectively and fulfilling life goals efficiently. Additionally, financial literacy will ensure one’s financial wellbeing and also protect individuals from financial frauds. Lacking the knowledge of these skills leads to financial illiteracy. Financial illiteracy leads to budget mismatch, higher expenses than income, accumulation of debts, poor credit score, being victims to financial frauds, and other negative consequences. Financial literacy is important because it equips one with the knowledge and skill to manage money effectively. Without financial literacy, the actions and decisions one makes or do not make with respect to savings and investments would lack a strong foundation. Financial literacy helps in understanding financial concepts better and enables one to manage their finances efficiently. Furthermore, it helps in effective money management, making financial decisions, and achieving financial stability. Moreover, financial literacy provides in-depth knowledge of financial education and various strategies that are indispensable for financial growth and success. Also, it enables one to be debt free by adopting the best debt strategies.

	SubQuestion No : 95
Q.95	Identify the tone of the passage.

Ans	1. Subjective
	2. Satirical
	3. Informative
	4. Critical

	Comprehension:
	Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow. Scarlett O'Hara famously asked her husband, Rhett Butler, “"Where shall I go?" to which he famously replied, "Frankly, my dear, I don't give a damn." One of the finest movie quotations ever is found toward the end of director Victor Fleming’s 1939 American historical romantic epic film, Gone with the Wind, it's also one of all-time favourite lines from a movie. But in 1930s American society, the term ‘damn’ was a swear word. Due to the word’s offensive nature and consequent prohibition by the 1930 Motion Picture Production Code, sometimes known as the ‘Hays Code’, American film censors insisted on its removal two months prior to the movie’s release. A few weeks before the movie's release, the Motion Picture Association of America board amended the Production Code, which caused the censors to change their minds. A word that had originally been offensive became suddenly unoffensive, most likely as a result of the changed sensitivities of American culture that made it possible to update the Motion Picture Production Code. Since then, American perceptions of these issues have advanced significantly. What is offensive to society will continue to be offensive unless its sensibilities significantly shift. People’s senses, belief systems, conventions, and practises don’t change suddenly. They develop slowly. Therefore, it is meaningless to inquire as to why something should be offensive to some while not being so to others, or why people aren’t saner and more tolerant when it comes to sensitive and disputed social topics. Cinema has a significant impact on its consumers since it is a captivating audio-visual medium of entertainment that teaches information, knowledge, beliefs, values, etc. A film’s effects on people and society can be either beneficial or bad depending on its subject matter and method of presentation. While a movie may be suitable for certain people’s age and sensibilities, it may not be suitable for other people’s age and sensibilities. Not everyone is intended to watch every movie. A controversial movie might also spark societal turmoil or even violence. As a result, every nation requires a formal agency to oversee its cinema ethics and policy. In India, the Central Board of Film Certification (CBFC), sometimes known as the ‘Censor Board’, must certify a movie as appropriate for the purpose before it can be released for public screening. Under the Cinematograph Act of 1952, the CBFC, which operates as a statutory agency under the Ministry of Information and Broadcasting, controls how movies are shown. Its responsibility is to make sure that the nation’s citizens enjoy wholesome enjoyment through cinematic media. The CBFC is required to certify that a movie, in whole or in part, does not jeopardise India’s sovereignty and integrity, jeopardise its security and relations with foreign states, cause public disorder or crime, cause defamation or court contempt, violate social norms and values, offend any group of people or community, etc.

	SubQuestion No : 96
Q.96	What is the passage based upon?

Ans	1. Trending movies
	2. Impact of cinema on people's sensibilities
	3. Motion picture production code
	4. Action epic film

	Comprehension:
	Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow. Scarlett O'Hara famously asked her husband, Rhett Butler, “"Where shall I go?" to which he famously replied, "Frankly, my dear, I don't give a damn." One of the finest movie quotations ever is found toward the end of director Victor Fleming’s 1939 American historical romantic epic film, Gone with the Wind, it's also one of all-time favourite lines from a movie. But in 1930s American society, the term ‘damn’ was a swear word. Due to the word’s offensive nature and consequent prohibition by the 1930 Motion Picture Production Code, sometimes known as the ‘Hays Code’, American film censors insisted on its removal two months prior to the movie’s release. A few weeks before the movie's release, the Motion Picture Association of America board amended the Production Code, which caused the censors to change their minds. A word that had originally been offensive became suddenly unoffensive, most likely as a result of the changed sensitivities of American culture that made it possible to update the Motion Picture Production Code. Since then, American perceptions of these issues have advanced significantly. What is offensive to society will continue to be offensive unless its sensibilities significantly shift. People’s senses, belief systems, conventions, and practises don’t change suddenly. They develop slowly. Therefore, it is meaningless to inquire as to why something should be offensive to some while not being so to others, or why people aren’t saner and more tolerant when it comes to sensitive and disputed social topics. Cinema has a significant impact on its consumers since it is a captivating audio-visual medium of entertainment that teaches information, knowledge, beliefs, values, etc. A film’s effects on people and society can be either beneficial or bad depending on its subject matter and method of presentation. While a movie may be suitable for certain people’s age and sensibilities, it may not be suitable for other people’s age and sensibilities. Not everyone is intended to watch every movie. A controversial movie might also spark societal turmoil or even violence. As a result, every nation requires a formal agency to oversee its cinema ethics and policy. In India, the Central Board of Film Certification (CBFC), sometimes known as the ‘Censor Board’, must certify a movie as appropriate for the purpose before it can be released for public screening. Under the Cinematograph Act of 1952, the CBFC, which operates as a statutory agency under the Ministry of Information and Broadcasting, controls how movies are shown. Its responsibility is to make sure that the nation’s citizens enjoy wholesome enjoyment through cinematic media. The CBFC is required to certify that a movie, in whole or in part, does not jeopardise India’s sovereignty and integrity, jeopardise its security and relations with foreign states, cause public disorder or crime, cause defamation or court contempt, violate social norms and values, offend any group of people or community, etc.

	SubQuestion No : 97
Q.97	Identify the structure of the passage.

Ans	1. Sequential
	2. Compare and contrast
	3. Descriptive
	4. Classification

	Comprehension:
	Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow. Scarlett O'Hara famously asked her husband, Rhett Butler, “"Where shall I go?" to which he famously replied, "Frankly, my dear, I don't give a damn." One of the finest movie quotations ever is found toward the end of director Victor Fleming’s 1939 American historical romantic epic film, Gone with the Wind, it's also one of all-time favourite lines from a movie. But in 1930s American society, the term ‘damn’ was a swear word. Due to the word’s offensive nature and consequent prohibition by the 1930 Motion Picture Production Code, sometimes known as the ‘Hays Code’, American film censors insisted on its removal two months prior to the movie’s release. A few weeks before the movie's release, the Motion Picture Association of America board amended the Production Code, which caused the censors to change their minds. A word that had originally been offensive became suddenly unoffensive, most likely as a result of the changed sensitivities of American culture that made it possible to update the Motion Picture Production Code. Since then, American perceptions of these issues have advanced significantly. What is offensive to society will continue to be offensive unless its sensibilities significantly shift. People’s senses, belief systems, conventions, and practises don’t change suddenly. They develop slowly. Therefore, it is meaningless to inquire as to why something should be offensive to some while not being so to others, or why people aren’t saner and more tolerant when it comes to sensitive and disputed social topics. Cinema has a significant impact on its consumers since it is a captivating audio-visual medium of entertainment that teaches information, knowledge, beliefs, values, etc. A film’s effects on people and society can be either beneficial or bad depending on its subject matter and method of presentation. While a movie may be suitable for certain people’s age and sensibilities, it may not be suitable for other people’s age and sensibilities. Not everyone is intended to watch every movie. A controversial movie might also spark societal turmoil or even violence. As a result, every nation requires a formal agency to oversee its cinema ethics and policy. In India, the Central Board of Film Certification (CBFC), sometimes known as the ‘Censor Board’, must certify a movie as appropriate for the purpose before it can be released for public screening. Under the Cinematograph Act of 1952, the CBFC, which operates as a statutory agency under the Ministry of Information and Broadcasting, controls how movies are shown. Its responsibility is to make sure that the nation’s citizens enjoy wholesome enjoyment through cinematic media. The CBFC is required to certify that a movie, in whole or in part, does not jeopardise India’s sovereignty and integrity, jeopardise its security and relations with foreign states, cause public disorder or crime, cause defamation or court contempt, violate social norms and values, offend any group of people or community, etc.

	SubQuestion No : 98
Q.98	Why does CBFC have to certify and control the content shown in a movie?

Ans	1. To jeopardise India’s security
	2. To not jeopardise India’s sovereignty and integrity
	3. To violate social norms
	4. To cause public disorder or crime

	Comprehension:
	Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow. Scarlett O'Hara famously asked her husband, Rhett Butler, “"Where shall I go?" to which he famously replied, "Frankly, my dear, I don't give a damn." One of the finest movie quotations ever is found toward the end of director Victor Fleming’s 1939 American historical romantic epic film, Gone with the Wind, it's also one of all-time favourite lines from a movie. But in 1930s American society, the term ‘damn’ was a swear word. Due to the word’s offensive nature and consequent prohibition by the 1930 Motion Picture Production Code, sometimes known as the ‘Hays Code’, American film censors insisted on its removal two months prior to the movie’s release. A few weeks before the movie's release, the Motion Picture Association of America board amended the Production Code, which caused the censors to change their minds. A word that had originally been offensive became suddenly unoffensive, most likely as a result of the changed sensitivities of American culture that made it possible to update the Motion Picture Production Code. Since then, American perceptions of these issues have advanced significantly. What is offensive to society will continue to be offensive unless its sensibilities significantly shift. People’s senses, belief systems, conventions, and practises don’t change suddenly. They develop slowly. Therefore, it is meaningless to inquire as to why something should be offensive to some while not being so to others, or why people aren’t saner and more tolerant when it comes to sensitive and disputed social topics. Cinema has a significant impact on its consumers since it is a captivating audio-visual medium of entertainment that teaches information, knowledge, beliefs, values, etc. A film’s effects on people and society can be either beneficial or bad depending on its subject matter and method of presentation. While a movie may be suitable for certain people’s age and sensibilities, it may not be suitable for other people’s age and sensibilities. Not everyone is intended to watch every movie. A controversial movie might also spark societal turmoil or even violence. As a result, every nation requires a formal agency to oversee its cinema ethics and policy. In India, the Central Board of Film Certification (CBFC), sometimes known as the ‘Censor Board’, must certify a movie as appropriate for the purpose before it can be released for public screening. Under the Cinematograph Act of 1952, the CBFC, which operates as a statutory agency under the Ministry of Information and Broadcasting, controls how movies are shown. Its responsibility is to make sure that the nation’s citizens enjoy wholesome enjoyment through cinematic media. The CBFC is required to certify that a movie, in whole or in part, does not jeopardise India’s sovereignty and integrity, jeopardise its security and relations with foreign states, cause public disorder or crime, cause defamation or court contempt, violate social norms and values, offend any group of people or community, etc.

	SubQuestion No : 99
Q.99	Which of the following words was interpreted as offensive in American Society in the 1930s?

Ans	1. Disputed
	2. Damn
	3. Code
	4. Meaningless

	Comprehension:
	Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow. Scarlett O'Hara famously asked her husband, Rhett Butler, “"Where shall I go?" to which he famously replied, "Frankly, my dear, I don't give a damn." One of the finest movie quotations ever is found toward the end of director Victor Fleming’s 1939 American historical romantic epic film, Gone with the Wind, it's also one of all-time favourite lines from a movie. But in 1930s American society, the term ‘damn’ was a swear word. Due to the word’s offensive nature and consequent prohibition by the 1930 Motion Picture Production Code, sometimes known as the ‘Hays Code’, American film censors insisted on its removal two months prior to the movie’s release. A few weeks before the movie's release, the Motion Picture Association of America board amended the Production Code, which caused the censors to change their minds. A word that had originally been offensive became suddenly unoffensive, most likely as a result of the changed sensitivities of American culture that made it possible to update the Motion Picture Production Code. Since then, American perceptions of these issues have advanced significantly. What is offensive to society will continue to be offensive unless its sensibilities significantly shift. People’s senses, belief systems, conventions, and practises don’t change suddenly. They develop slowly. Therefore, it is meaningless to inquire as to why something should be offensive to some while not being so to others, or why people aren’t saner and more tolerant when it comes to sensitive and disputed social topics. Cinema has a significant impact on its consumers since it is a captivating audio-visual medium of entertainment that teaches information, knowledge, beliefs, values, etc. A film’s effects on people and society can be either beneficial or bad depending on its subject matter and method of presentation. While a movie may be suitable for certain people’s age and sensibilities, it may not be suitable for other people’s age and sensibilities. Not everyone is intended to watch every movie. A controversial movie might also spark societal turmoil or even violence. As a result, every nation requires a formal agency to oversee its cinema ethics and policy. In India, the Central Board of Film Certification (CBFC), sometimes known as the ‘Censor Board’, must certify a movie as appropriate for the purpose before it can be released for public screening. Under the Cinematograph Act of 1952, the CBFC, which operates as a statutory agency under the Ministry of Information and Broadcasting, controls how movies are shown. Its responsibility is to make sure that the nation’s citizens enjoy wholesome enjoyment through cinematic media. The CBFC is required to certify that a movie, in whole or in part, does not jeopardise India’s sovereignty and integrity, jeopardise its security and relations with foreign states, cause public disorder or crime, cause defamation or court contempt, violate social norms and values, offend any group of people or community, etc.

	SubQuestion No : 100
Q.100	Why/how did the word, which had originally been offensive, become unoffensive suddenly?

Ans	1. Because of people’s age and norms
	2. Because of changed sensitivity of American culture
	3. Because of the conventions
	4. Because of the control by the Censor Board

Section : General Intelligence and Reasoning

Q.1	छह दोस्त एक गोल मेज के परित: इसके केंद्र की ओर अभिमुख होकर बॉटल-सि्पनिंग का खेल खेल रहे हैं। रोहिणी, रश्मि के बायें से तीसरे स्थान पर बैठी है। राहुल रश्मि और रमेश के बीच में बैठा है। रवि रोहिणी और राजू के बीच में बैठा है। रवि, रश्मि के दायें से दूसरे स्थान पर बैठा है। निम्नलिखित में से कौन राजू के ठीक बायें बैठा है?

Ans	1. रोहिणी
	2. राहुल
	3. रमेश
	4. रश्मि

Q.2	सुरेश अब 19 साल का है और कॉलेज में है। जब वह 5 साल का था, तब से वह एक छात्रावास में रहा और अब 14 साल के लंबे समय के बाद घर वापस आ रहा है। उसके माता-पिता ने उसे रेलवे स्टेशन से उसके घर तक का रास्ता लिखकर भेजा है। सुरेश को उसके माता-पिता द्वारा भेजा गया नीचे दिया गया टेक्स्ट संदेश देखिए और उसके अनुसार निम्नलिखित प्रश्न का उत्तर दीजिए। “जब आप रेलवे स्टेशन से बाहर निकलते हैं, तो आपका मुख उत्तर की ओर होगा। दाएं मुड़ें और 4 km ड्राइव करें, आपको एक T -पॉइंट/जंक्शन दिखाई देगा। दाएं मुड़ें और 2 km ड्राइव करें। चार सड़कों वाला एक गोल चक्कर मिलेगा। गोल चक्कर से बाएं दूसरा मोड़ लें और 1 km ड्राइव करें। दाएं मुड़ें और 3 km ड्राइव करें। बाएं मुड़ें और 2 km ड्राइव करें। आपको हमारा घर सामने मिलेगा। जल्दी घर आओ।" सुरेश ने अपने माता-पिता द्वारा दिए गए निर्देशों का पालन करते हुए अपने घर तक पहुंचने के लिए गोलचक्कर से दूसरा-बाएं मुड़ने के बाद कितने किलोमीटर की दूरी तय की?

Ans	1. 8
	2. 5
	3. 6
	4. 12

Q.3	तीन कथन दिए गए हैं, जिसके बाद दो निष्कर्ष I और II दिए गए हैं। कथनों को सत्य मानते हुए, भले ही वे सामान्य रूप से ज्ञात तथ्यों से भिन्न प्रतीत होते हों, निर्णय लीजिए कि कौन सा निष्कर्ष कथनों का तार्किक रूप से अनुसरण करता है। कथन: कुछ शिक्षक, नर्तक हैं। सभी नर्तक, सुंदर हैं। सभी शिक्षक, ईमानदार हैं। निष्कर्ष: I. कुछ शिक्षक, सुंदर हैं। II. कुछ नर्तक, ईमानदार हैं।

Ans	1. केवल निष्कर्ष I अनुसरण करता है।
	2. न तो निष्कर्ष I अनुसरण करता है और न ही II अनुसरण करता है।
	3. केवल निष्कर्ष II अनुसरण करता है।
	4. निष्कर्ष I और II दोनों अनुसरण करते हैं।

Q.4	दिए गए चार विकल्पों में से तीन विकल्प एक निश्चित तरीके से समान हैं और इस प्रकार एक समूह बनाते हैं। वह कौन-सा विकल्प है जो उस समूह से संबंधित नहीं है? (नोट : असंगत अक्षर-समूह, शब्द में स्वरों या व्यंजनों की संख्या पर आधारित नहीं है।)

Ans	1. IKF
	2. SUQ
	3. DFA
	4. PRM

Q.5	नीचे तीन कथन और उसके बाद तीन निष्कर्ष I, II और III दिए गए हैं। कथनों को सत्य मानते हुए, भले ही वे सामान्य रूप से ज्ञात तथ्यों से भिन्न प्रतीत होते हों, निर्धारित करें कि कौन-सा/से निष्कर्ष कथनों का तार्किक रूप से अनुसरण करता है/करते हैं। कथन: कुछ पिता महिलाएं हैं। सभी पिता पुरुष हैं। कुछ पिता माताएं हैं। निष्कर्ष: I. कुछ पुरुष महिलाएं नहीं हैं। II. कुछ माताएं महिलाएं हैं। III. कुछ पुरुष माताएं हैं।

Ans	1. निष्कर्ष I और III दोनों अनुसरण करते हैं।
	2. निष्कर्ष II और III दोनों अनुसरण करते हैं।
	3. केवल निष्कर्ष III अनुसरण करता है।
	4. सभी निष्कर्ष अनुसरण करते हैं।

Q.6	नीचे एक कथन दिया गया है जिसके बाद दो निष्कर्ष I और II दिए गए हैं। कथन का ध्यानपूर्वक अध्ययन करें और निर्धारित करें कि कौन सा/से निष्कर्ष निश्चित रूप से सत्य है/हैं। कथन: M > N ≥ O ≤ P ≤ W; X ≥ O > Y निष्‍कर्ष I: M > X निष्‍कर्ष II: Y < W

Ans	1. न तो निष्कर्ष I सत्‍य है और न ही II सत्य है।
	2. निष्कर्ष I और II दोनों सत्य हैं।
	3. केवल निष्कर्ष II सत्य है।
	4. केवल निष्कर्ष I सत्य है।

Q.7	नीचे दो कथन और उसके बाद दो निष्कर्ष I और II दिए गए हैं। कथनों को सत्य मानते हुए, भले ही वे सामान्य रूप से ज्ञात तथ्यों से भिन्न प्रतीत होते हों, निर्णय लीजिए कि कौन-सा/से निष्कर्ष कथनों का तार्किक रूप से अनुसरण करता/करते है/हैं। कथन: कुछ फूल कलियाँ हैं। कुछ फूल पेड़ हैं। निष्कर्ष: I. कुछ पेड़ कलियाँ हैं। II. कोई पेड़ कली नहीं है।

Ans	1. न तो निष्कर्ष I और न ही II अनुसरण करता है।
	2. निष्कर्ष I और II दोनों अनुसरण करते हैं।
	3. केवल निष्कर्ष I अनुसरण करता है।
	4. केवल निष्कर्ष II अनुसरण करता है।

Q.8	पाँच घर (A, B, C, D और E) एक दूसरे से इस प्रकार समान दूरी पर हैं कि B, A के पूर्व में है, D, B के दक्षिण में है, C, D के पश्चिम में है और E, C के दक्षिण में है। A, E से किस दिशा में है?

Ans	1. उत्तर
	2. पश्चिम
	3. दक्षिण- पश्चिम
	4. उत्तर-पूर्व

Q.9	EGMA’ अक्षरों से, प्रत्येक शब्द में प्रत्येक अक्षर का केवल एक बार प्रयोग करके कितने अर्थपूर्ण अंग्रेजी शब्द बनाए जा सकते हैं?

Ans	1. 3
	2. 2
	3. 1
	4. 4

Q.10	दिए गए विकल्पों में से उस युग्म का चयन कीजिए जो दिए गए युग्म के सदृश हो। 14 : 200 5 : 29 (नोट: संख्याओं को उनके घटक अंकों में तोड़े बिना संक्रियाएँ केवल पूर्ण संख्याओं पर की जानी चाहिए। उदाहरण के लिए 13 को लीजिए – 13 पर की जाने वाली संक्रियाएँ, जैसे 13 में जोड़ना / घटाना / गुणा करना इत्यादि केवल 13 पर की जा सकती हैं। 13 को 1 और 3 में तोड़ना और फिर 1 और 3 पर गणितीय संक्रियाएँ करने की अनुमति नहीं है।)

Ans	1. 11 : 120
	2. 16 : 260
	3. 15 : 230
	4. 7 : 50

Q.11	अंग्रेजी वर्णमाला क्रम के आधार पर दी गई श्रृंखला में प्रश्न-चिह्न (?) के स्थान पर क्या आना चाहिए? IGK, LJN, OMQ, RPT, ?

Ans	1. URW
	2. VSW
	3. USW
	4. VRW

Q.12	दिए गए विकल्पों में से उस पद का चयन कीजिए जो निम्नलिखित श्रृंखला में प्रश्न चिह्न (?) के स्‍थान पर आ सकता है। GDA, OLI, WTQ, EBY, ?

Ans	1. LRS
	2. MJG
	3. NQP
	4. KMN

Q.13	निम्नलिखित समीकरण में यदि '+' और '×' को परस्पर बदल दिया जाए और ‘−' और '÷' को परस्पर बदल दिया जाए, तो प्रश्न-चिह्न (?) के स्थान पर क्या आएगा? 5 + 3 × 2 ÷ 10 − 5 = ?

Ans	1. 12
	2. 10
	3. 13
	4. 15

Q.14	यदि L का अर्थ ÷, N का अर्थ ×, P का अर्थ + और J का अर्थ − है, तो दिए गए समीकरण, 19 L 95 N 5 J 35 P 7 = 333, को सही करने के लिए निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा परस्पर बदला जाना चाहिए?

Ans	1. (P और N)
	2. (J और N)
	3. (P और L)
	4. (N और L)

Q.15	उस विकल्प का चयन कीजिए जो तीसरी संख्या से उसी प्रकार संबंधित है जिस प्रकार दूसरी संख्या पहली संख्या से संबंधित है और छठी संख्या पांचवीं संख्या से संबंधित है। 16 : 85 :: 23 : ? :: 28 : 145 (नोट: संख्याओं को उनके घटक अंकों में तोड़े बिना संक्रियाएँ केवल पूर्ण संख्याओं पर की जानी चाहिए। उदाहरण के लिए 13 को लीजिए – 13 पर की जाने वाली संक्रियाएँ, जैसे 13 में जोड़ना / घटाना / गुणा करना इत्यादि केवल 13 पर की जा सकती हैं। 13 को 1 और 3 में तोड़ना और फिर 1 और 3 पर गणितीय संक्रियाएँ करने की अनुमति नहीं है।)

Ans	1. 105
	2. 135
	3. 150
	4. 120

Q.16	इस प्रश्न में तीन कथन दिए गए हैं, जिनके बाद तीन निष्कर्ष I, II और III दिए गए हैं। कथनों को सत्य मानते हुए, भले ही वे सामान्य रूप से ज्ञात तथ्यों से अलग प्रतीत होते हों, निर्धारित करें कि कौन-सा/से निष्कर्ष दिए गए कथनों का तार्किक रूप से अनुसरण करता है/करते हैं। कथन: सभी पैंट शर्ट हैं। सभी शर्ट जैकेट हैं। कुछ जैकेट स्वेटर हैं। निष्कर्ष: I. कुछ जैकेट पैंट हैं। II. कुछ स्वेटर शर्ट हैं। III. कोई पैंट स्वेटर नहीं है।

Ans	1. केवल निष्कर्ष I अनुसरण करता है।
	2. निष्कर्ष II और III, दोनों अनुसरण करते हैं।
	3. I, II या III, कोई भी निष्कर्ष अनुसरण नहीं करता है।
	4. निष्कर्ष I और II, दोनों अनुसरण करते हैं।

Q.17	उस विकल्‍प का चयन करें जिसमें संख्‍याएं उसी तरह से संबंधित हैं जिस प्रकार दिए गए समुच्चयों में संख्‍याएं संबंधित हैं। (2, 7, 11) (13,17,29) (नोट: संख्याओं को उनके घटक अंकों में तोड़े बिना संक्रियाएँ केवल पूर्ण संख्याओं पर की जानी चाहिए। उदाहरण के लिए 13 को लीजिए – 13 पर की जाने वाली संक्रियाएँ, जैसे 13 में जोड़ना / घटाना / गुणा करना इत्यादि केवल 13 पर की जा सकती हैं। 13 को 1 और 3 में तोड़ना और फिर 1 और 3 पर गणितीय संक्रियाएँ करने की अनुमति नहीं है।)

Ans	1. (37, 41, 49)
	2. (3, 9, 11)
	3. (13, 17, 23)
	4. (27, 31, 33)

Q.18	उस विकल्प का चयन कीजिए जिसमें दी गई आकृति (X) सन्‍निहित है (घुमाने की अनुमति नहीं है)।

Ans	1.
	2.
	3.
	4.

Q.19

Ans	1. 9
	2. 10
	3. 8
	4. 7

Q.20	कौन सा अक्षर-समूह दी गई श्रृंखला में प्रश्‍न चिह्न (?) को प्रतिस्‍थापित करके श्रृंखला को पूरी करेगा? WGDE, ZEGC, ?, FAMY, IYPW

Ans	1. ZCIB
	2. CCJA
	3. DCIB
	4. DBJC

Q.21	A, B, C, X, Y और Z एक गोल मेज के परित: उसके केंद्र की ओर अभिमुख होकर बैठे हैं (लेकिन इसी क्रम में जरूरी नहीं)। X, A के ठीक बाएं बैठा है। X और Z के बीच केवल एक व्यक्ति बैठा है। C, B के दाएं से दूसरे स्थान पर बैठा है। Y, A का निकटतम पड़ोसी नहीं है। Z के ठीक दाएं कौन बैठा है?

Ans	1. C
	2. B
	3. A
	4. Y

Q.22	दिए गए विकल्पों में से उस संख्या का चयन कीजिए, जो निम्नलिखित शृंखला में प्रश्न-चिह्न (?) को प्रतिस्थापित कर सकती है। 12, 16, 25, 50, 99, ?, 389

Ans	1. 200
	2. 220
	3. 240
	4. 180

Q.23	निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सी संख्या दी गई श्रृंखला में प्रश्न चिह्न (?) को प्रतिस्थापित करेगी? 23, 54, 81, 117, 137, 182, 191, ?

Ans	1. 294
	2. 254
	3. 249
	4. 245

Q.24	14 सितंबर, 3041 को सप्ताह का कौन-सा दिन होगा?

Ans	1. रविवार
	2. मंगलवार
	3. सोमवार
	4. शुक्रवार

Q.25

Ans	1.
	2.
	3.
	4.

Q.26	निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सी संख्या दी गई श्रृंखला में प्रश्न चिह्न (?) को प्रतिस्थापित करेगी? 5, 14, 41, 122, 365, ?

Ans	1. 1490
	2. 1940
	3. 1094
	4. 1049

Q.27	निम्नलिखित समीकरण में यदि ‘+’ और ‘−’ को आपस में बदल दिया जाए और ‘×’ और ‘÷’ को आपस में बदल दिया जाए तो प्रश्नवाचक चिह्न (?) के स्थान पर क्या आयेगा? 108 × 2 − 14 ÷ 6 + 27 = ?

Ans	1. 114
	2. 101
	3. 212
	4. 111

Q.28	उस समुच्चय का चयन कीजिए जिसमें संख्याएँ आपस में उसी प्रकार संबंधित हैं जिस प्रकार निम्नलिखित समुच्चय की संख्याएँ आपस में संबंधित है। (9, 83, 164) (4, 18, 34) (नोट: संख्याओं को उनके घटक अंकों में तोड़े बिना संक्रियाएँ केवल पूर्ण संख्याओं पर की जानी चाहिए। उदाहरण के लिए 13 को लीजिए – 13 पर की जाने वाली संक्रियाएँ, जैसे 13 में जोड़ना / घटाना / गुणा करना इत्यादि केवल 13 पर की जा सकती हैं। 13 को 1 और 3 में तोड़ना और फिर 1 और 3 पर गणितीय संक्रियाएँ करने की अनुमति नहीं है।)

Ans	1. (5, 27, 56)
	2. (6, 38, 74)
	3. (11, 122, 242)
	4. (13, 167, 334)

Q.29	जब संख्या 3 और 9 को परस्पर बदल दिया जाता है और चिह्न − और × को परस्पर बदल दिया जाता है, तो निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा समीकरण सही होगा?

Ans	1. 12 ÷ 9 − 2 × 7 + 3 = 10
	2. 9 ÷ 4 × 3 + 1 − 6 = 18
	3. 1 − 9 × 10 ÷ 4 + 3 = 32
	4. 9 ÷ 2 × 1 − 3 + 5 = 15

Q.30	सात व्यक्तियों F, G, H, K, L, M और N में से प्रत्येक की आयु भिन्न है। केवल दो व्यक्ति M से बड़े हैं। केवल दो व्यक्ति K से छोटे हैं। K की आयु 10 का गुणज है। सबसे छोटा 12 वर्ष का है। F सबसे बड़ा है। N, L से बड़ा है, लेकिन H से छोटा है। L सबसे छोटा नहीं है। सबसे छोटे और दूसरे सबसे बड़े व्यक्ति की आयु का योग 42 वर्ष है। L की संभाव्य आयु क्या हो सकती है?

Ans	1. 12 वर्ष
	2. 15 वर्ष
	3. 10 वर्ष
	4. 21 वर्ष

Q.31	उस विकल्प का चयन कीजिए जो दी गई आकृति में सन्‍निहित है (घुमाने की अनुमति नहीं है)।

Ans	1.
	2.
	3.
	4.

Q.32	दिए गए विकल्पों में से उस त्रयी का चयन कीजिए जो दी गई त्रयी के सदृश हो। 505 – 604 – 217

Ans	1. 161 – 512 – 710
	2. 244 – 226 – 262
	3. 432 – 513 – 711
	4. 125 – 223 – 342

Q.33	एक निश्चित तर्क का अनुसरण करते हुए 4, 125 से संबंधित है। उसी तर्क का अनुसरण करते हुए, 8, 729 से संबंधित है। उसी तर्क का उपयोग करते हुए निम्नलिखित में से कौन सी संख्या 1728 से संबंधित है? (नोट: संख्याओं को उनके घटक अंकों में तोड़े बिना संक्रियाएँ केवल पूर्ण संख्याओं पर की जानी चाहिए। उदाहरण के लिए 13 को लीजिए – 13 पर की जाने वाली संक्रियाएँ, जैसे 13 में जोड़ना / घटाना / गुणा करना इत्यादि केवल 13 पर की जा सकती हैं। 13 को 1 और 3 में तोड़ना और फिर 1 और 3 पर गणितीय संक्रियाएँ करने की अनुमति नहीं है।)

Ans	1. 11
	2. 9
	3. 12
	4. 10

Q.34	निम्नलिखित व्यंजक के लिए 'शून्य' मान प्राप्त करने के लिए परस्पर किन दो चिह्नों को और परस्पर किन दो संख्याओं (अंक नहीं) को बदला जाना चाहिए? 2 – 55 + 11 × 4 ÷ 18

Ans	1. – और ÷; 2 और 4
	2. × और –; 4 और 11
	3. + और ÷; 2 और 18
	4. + और ÷; 11 और 18

Q.35	निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सी संख्या दी गई श्रृंखला में प्रश्न चिह्न (?) को प्रतिस्थापित करेगी? 122, 135, 161, 200, 252, ?

Ans	1. 317
	2. 517
	3. 417
	4. 217

Q.36	एक निश्चित कूट भाषा में, 'BOOK' को 172 के रूप में कूटबद्ध किया जाता है और 'PAGES' को 240 के रूप में कूटबद्ध किया जाता है। उसी भाषा में 'LIBRARY' को किस प्रकार कूटबद्ध किया जाएगा?

Ans	1. 680
	2. 510
	3. 469
	4. 595

Q.37	उस युग्म का चयन कीजिए जो एक दूसरे से उसी प्रकार संबंधित है जिस प्रकार नीचे दिया गया युग्म संबंधित है 12:168 11:145 (नोट: संख्याओं को उनके घटक अंकों में तोड़े बिना संक्रियाएँ केवल पूर्ण संख्याओं पर की जानी चाहिए। उदाहरण के लिए 13 को लीजिए – 13 पर की जाने वाली संक्रियाएँ, जैसे 13 में जोड़ना / घटाना / गुणा करना इत्यादि केवल 13 पर की जा सकती हैं। 13 को 1 और 3 में तोड़ना और फिर 1 और 3 पर गणितीय संक्रियाएँ करने की अनुमति नहीं है।)

Ans	1. 5:61
	2. 14:172
	3. 8:88
	4. 16:232

Q.38

Ans	1. A
	2. D
	3. B
	4. C

Q.39	दिए गए विकल्पों में से उन संख्याओं का चयन कीजिए जिन्हें प्रश्न चिह्नों (?) के स्थान पर समान क्रम में रखे जाने पर श्रृंखला तार्किक रूप से पूर्ण हो सकती है। 17, 18, 22, 31, ?, 72, ?, 157

Ans	1. 47, 105
	2. 49, 106
	3. 45, 107
	4. 47, 108

Q.40	अंग्रेजी के अक्षरांकीय क्रम के अनुसार AZ1 एक निश्चित तरीके के आधार पर CX3 से संबंधित है। EV5 इसी प्रकार से GT7 से संबंधित है। तो, इसी तर्क के अनुसार IR9 इनमें से किससे संबंधित होगा?

Ans	1. MN 13
	2. KQ 11
	3. PK 11
	4. KP 11

Q.41	उस विकल्प आकृति का चयन करें जो नीचे दी गई आकृति में प्रश्न चिह्न (?) को प्रतिस्थापित करेगी और पैटर्न को पूरा करेगी।

Ans	1.
	2.
	3.
	4.

Q.42	निम्नलिखित श्रृंखला को जारी रखने के लिए प्रश्न चिह्न (?) के स्थान पर कौन-सी आकृति आनी चाहिए?

Ans	1.
	2.
	3.
	4.

Q.43

Ans	1. 5, 2, 1, 3, 4
	2. 2, 3, 4, 5, 1
	3. 5, 2, 4, 1, 3
	4. 4, 1, 5, 3, 2

Q.44	विकल्पों में से उस आकृति का चयन कीजिए, जो प्रश्न चिह्न (?) के स्‍थान पर आ सकती है और दिए गए पैटर्न को पूरा कर सकती है।

Ans	1.
	2.
	3.
	4.

Q.45	एक निश्चित कूट भाषा में, 'PRICE' को EGRTK के रूप में कूटबद्ध किया जाताहै और 'STAGE' को IGUVC के रूप में कूटबद्ध किया जाता है। उसी भाषा में 'RIGHT' को किस प्रकार कूटबद्ध किया जाएगा?

Ans	1. JVTKI
	2. GRVKG
	3. JVTKH
	4. GRVJG

Q.46	निम्नलिखित चार अक्षर-समूहों में से तीन किसी निश्चित शैली में समान है और एक असंगत है। उस असंगत का चयन कीजिए। (नोट : असंगत अक्षर-समूह, शब्द में स्वरों या व्यंजनों की संख्या पर आधारित नहीं है।)

Ans	1. SHQP
	2. WDYT
	3. FUHC
	4. JQLG

Q.47	यदि × का अर्थ ÷, ÷ का अर्थ −, − का अर्थ + और + का अर्थ × है, तो दिए गए व्यंजक का मान क्या होगा? 7+5 ÷ 3 − 12 × 4

Ans	1. 6
	2. 35
	3. 28
	4. 30

Q.48	A, C की माता है जो पुत्र नहीं है। C की एक पुत्री E है। A का विवाह F से हुआ है। F का एक पुत्र B है जिसका एक पुत्र D है। D और E का क्या संबंध है?

Ans	1. पुत्री
	2. माता
	3. कज़िन (ममेरे/फुफेरे/चचेरे/मौसेरे भाई या बहन)
	4. बहन

Q.49	यदि X, Y की बहन है, Z, A का पिता है और Y, A का पुत्र है, तो Z का X से क्या संबंध है?

Ans	1. दादा/नाना
	2. परदादा/परनाना
	3. पोती/नातिन/नवासी
	4. पिता

Q.50	उस विकल्प का चयन कीजिए जो तीसरे शब्द से उसी प्रकार संबंधित है जिस प्रकार दूसरा शब्द पहले शब्द से से संबंधित है। (शब्दों को हिंदी का अर्थपूर्ण शब्द माना जाना चाहिए और शब्द में अक्षरों की संख्या/व्यंजनों /स्वरों की संख्या के आधार पर उन्‍हें एक-दूसरे से संबंधित नहीं किया जाना चाहिए।) रेड क्रॉस : अस्‍पताल :: चक्र : ?

Ans	1. परिवार नियोजन
	2. खतरा
	3. प्रगति
	4. मंदी

Section : General Awareness

Q.1	पिट्स इंडिया एक्ट निम्नलिखित में से किस वर्ष पारित किया गया था?

Ans	1. 1784
	2. 1780
	3. 1781
	4. 1782

Q.2	जेम्स चैडविक 1932 में की गई किस खोज के लिए प्रसिद्ध हैं?

Ans	1. तापीय आयनीकरण
	2. न्यूट्रॉन
	3. प्रकाश का तरंग सिद्धांत
	4. इलेक्ट्रॉन

Q.3	भारत में दूसरी पंचवर्षीय योजना का अनुमानित विकास लक्ष्य कितना था?

Ans	1.
	2.
	3.
	4.

Q.4	निम्न में से कौन-सा अल्पपोषण के कारण भोजन न करने का मनोवैज्ञानिक विकार है?

Ans	1. एनोरेक्सिया नर्वोज़ा (Anorexia Nervosa)
	2. क्वाशिओरकोर (Kwashiorkor)
	3. मरास्मस (Marasmus)
	4. बुलिमिया नर्वोज़ा (Bulimia Nervosa)

Q.5	किस कोशिकांग में RNA होता है?

Ans	1. कोशिका भित्ति
	2. कोशिका आधार
	3. राइबोसोम
	4. साइटोप्लाज्म

Q.6	खेलो इंडिया यूथ गेम्स 2022 में किस राज्य की टीम ने महिला अंडर-18 हॉकी का खिताब जीता?

Ans	1. झारखंड
	2. मध्य प्रदेश
	3. ओडिशा
	4. हरियाणा

Q.7	निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सी प्रक्रिया मृदा में अपघटन के दौरान होती है?

Ans	1. ऑक्सीकरण (Oxidation)
	2. क्रिस्टलीकरण (Crystallisation)
	3. एकीकरण (Defragmentation)
	4. आर्द्रीकरण (Humification)

Q.8	निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा विकल्प एकीकृत बाल विकास सेवा (ICDS) योजना के लिए सर्वोत्तम विकल्प का निरूपण करता है?

Ans	1. गृह समर्थन
	2. वस्त्र समर्थन
	3. यात्रा समर्थन
	4. पोषण समर्थन

Q.9	निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा राज्य कम वर्षा वाले क्षेत्र के अंतर्गत आता है?

Ans	1. मेघालय
	2. त्रिपुरा
	3. गुजरात
	4. बिहार

Q.10	निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा विकल्प सकल प्राथमिक घाटे के परिकलन के लिए सही सूत्र है?

Ans	1. सकल राजकोषीय घाटा – आरबीआई से उधार राशियां
	2. सकल राजकोषीय घाटा – निवल ब्याज देनदारियां
	3. सकल राजकोषीय घाटा – विदेशों से उधार राशियां
	4. सकल राजकोषीय घाटा + निवल ब्याज देनदारियां

Q.11	पद्म श्री पुरस्कार से सम्मानित दर्शना झावेरी एक प्रसिद्ध ________ नृत्यांगना हैं।

Ans	1. ओडिसी
	2. मणिपुरी
	3. मोहिनीअट्टम
	4. सत्रिया

Q.12	केरल का सबसे महत्वपूर्ण और व्यापक रूप से मनाया जाने वाला त्योहार _________ है।

Ans	1. गुड़ी पड़वा
	2. उगादी
	3. ओणम
	4. नुआखाई

Q.13	निचले गोदावरी क्षेत्र में अमरावती के महान स्तूप की दीवारों को निम्नलिखित में से किस उद्भृति मूर्तिकला (relief sculptures) से सजाया गया था?

Ans	1. जलमग्न उद्भृत (Sunken relief)
	2. निम्न उद्भृत (Bas relief)
	3. ऑल्टो-रिलीवो (Alto-relievo)
	4. स्वत: स्थित (Freestanding)

Q.14	द हाउस ऑफ ब्लू मैंगोज (The House of Blue Mangoes) पुस्तक के लेखक निम्नलिखित में से कौन हैं?

Ans	1. दुर्जोय दत्ता (Durjoy Datta)
	2. डेविड डेविडर (David Davidar)
	3. अरविंद अडिगा (Arvind Adiga)
	4. शेखर बंद्योपाध्याय (Sekhar Bandyopadhyay)

Q.15	निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा विद्युत का सुचालक नहीं है?

Ans	1. सोना
	2. सल्फर
	3. चाँदी
	4. अल्युमीनियम

Q.16	निम्नलिखित विकल्पों में से इलेक्ट्रॉनिक विन्यास 2,8,1 वाले तत्व की पहचान करें।

Ans	1. सोडियम
	2. मैग्नेशियम
	3. हाइड्रोजन
	4. क्लोरीन

Q.17	सिंधी समुदाय के भगवान झूलेलाल की जयंती को किस अन्य नाम से भी जाना जाता है?

Ans	1. जमशेदी नवरोज
	2. उलम्बना
	3. चालिहा साहिब
	4. चेटी चंद

Q.18	निम्नलिखित में से कौन कर्नाटक संगीत के गायक हैं?

Ans	1. एल. सुब्रमण्यम
	2. एम. बालमुरलीकृष्ण
	3. रवि शंकर
	4. अल्ला रक्खा

Q.19	बाणभट्ट, हर्षवर्द्धन का दरबारी कवि था, जिसने _________ नामक पुस्तक लिखी थी।

Ans	1. नीतिसार
	2. मुद्राराक्षस
	3. हर्षचरित
	4. अर्थशास्त्र

Q.20

Ans	1. a-ii, b-iv, c-i, d-iii
	2. a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii
	3. a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii
	4. a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii

Q.21	हिन्दुस्तानी शास्त्रीय गायक बड़े गुलाम अली खान निम्नलिखित में से किस घराने से संबंधित थे?

Ans	1. आगरा
	2. पटियाला
	3. ग्वालियर
	4. किराना

Q.22	रबर भारत के निम्नलिखित में से किस राज्य की प्रमुख खेती नही है?

Ans	1. पंजाब
	2. केरल
	3. मेघालय
	4. तमिलनाडु

Q.23	पहला विंबलडन टूर्नामेंट कब और कहाँ आयोजित किया गया था?

Ans	1. 1887, वर्पल रोड साइट, विंबलडन
	2. 1887, चर्च रोड साइट, विंबलडन
	3. 1888, चर्च रोड साइट, विंबलडन
	4. 1877, वर्पल रोड साइट, विंबलडन

Q.24	अशोक स्‍तंभ (Ashoka’s Lion capital) और भारत के राष्ट्रीय प्रतीक पर आधारित दिए गए कथनों के आधार पर सही विकल्प का चयन करें। कथन I: मूल अशोक स्‍तंभ में, एक घंटी के आकार के कमल पर टिके हुए एक वृत्ताकार शीर्ष फलक पर पीठ से पीठ सटाए चार सिंह बने हुए हैं। कथन II: राष्ट्रीय प्रतीक, सारनाथ के अशोक स्‍तंभ का एक रूपांतरण है, जिसमें घंटी के आकार के कमल को हटाया गया है।

Ans	1. न तो कथन I और न ही कथन II सत्य है।
	2. केवल कथन II सत्य है।
	3. कथन I और कथन II, दोनों सत्य हैं।
	4. केवल कथन I सत्य है।

Q.25	निम्नलिखित में से कौन-से, सैटेलाइट बंदरगाह हैं?

Ans	1. चेन्नई और मुंबई
	2. पाराद्वीप और विशाखापत्तनम
	3. मोरमुगाओ और न्यू मैंगलोर बंदरगाह
	4. न्हावा शेवा और हल्दिया

Q.26	वह व्यापार-रणनीति कौन-सी है, जिसे भारत ने प्रथम-सात पंचवर्षीय योजनाओं में अपनाया था?

Ans	1. आंशिक रूप से बहिकेंद्रित व्यापार रणनीति
	2. अंतर्केंद्रित व्यापार रणनीति
	3. बहिकेंद्रित व्यापार रणनीति
	4. आंशिक रूप से अंतर्केंद्रित व्यापार रणनीति

Q.27	किस अधिनियम के अंतर्गत कार्यकारी परिषद के व्यक्तिगत सदस्यों का अपना पोर्टफोलियो था?

Ans	1. भारतीय परिषद अधिनियम 1892
	2. भारतीय परिषद अधिनियम 1858
	3. भारतीय परिषद अधिनियम 1861
	4. भारतीय परिषद अधिनियम 1909

Q.28	सूक्ष्म जीवों की अदृश्य दुनिया की खोज के लिए घर में बने सूक्ष्मदर्शी का प्रयोग किसने किया, जिसके लिए उन्हें सूक्ष्म जीव विज्ञान (माइक्रोबायोलॉजी) का जनक कहा जाता है?

Ans	1. रुडोल्फ विरचो
	2. रॉबर्ट ब्राउन
	3. मथियास स्लेडेन
	4. एंटोनी वैन ल्यूवेनहॉक

Q.29	ब्रिटिश भारत के निम्नलिखित में से किस भारत सरकार अधिनियम ने अखिल भारतीय संघ (भारत संघ) का प्रस्ताव रखा था?

Ans	1. 1858
	2. 1935
	3. 1853
	4. 1919

Q.30	निम्नलिखित में से किस राजनेता ने आत्मकथा 'माई कंट्री माई लाइफ' (‘My Country My Life’) लिखी थी?

Ans	1. आई.के. गुजराल
	2. कपिल सिब्बल
	3. एल.के. आडवाणी
	4. नटवर सिंह

Q.31	आत्मनिर्भर भारत रोजगार योजना किस संगठन के माध्यम से लागू की गई थी?

Ans	1. एचडीएफसी बैंक
	2. इंडिया पोस्ट पेमेंट्स बैंक
	3. कर्मचारी भविष्य निधि संगठन
	4. जीवन बीमा निगम

Q.32	'अरावली', भारत की/के एक _________ का नाम है।

Ans	1. पर्वत शृंखला
	2. पठार
	3. झील
	4. घाटी

Q.33	दिसंबर 2022 में हिमाचल प्रदेश के नए मुख्यमंत्री के रूप में किसने शपथ ली?

Ans	1. जय राम ठाकुर
	2. प्रतिभा सिंह
	3. मुकेश अग्निहोत्री
	4. सुखविंदर सिंह सुक्खू

Q.34	प्रधानमंत्री फसल बीमा योजना के अंतर्गत, बागवानी फसलों के लिए किसानों द्वारा देय अधिकतम प्रीमियम _________ होगा।

Ans	1. 4%
	2. 5%
	3. 6%
	4. 3%

Q.35	तापमान के बढ़ने पर कणों की गति पर क्या प्रभाव पड़ता है?

Ans	1. कण स्थिर रहते हैं
	2. कण एक ही दिशा में चलते हैं
	3. कण धीमे हो जाते हैं
	4. कण तेजी से चलते हैं

Q.36	भारत की वर्ष 2011 की जनगणना के अनुसार, निम्नलिखित में से किस राज्य का लिंगानुपात सबसे अधिक है?

Ans	1. आंध्र प्रदेश
	2. उत्तर प्रदेश
	3. राजस्थान
	4. बिहार

Q.37	निम्नलिखित में से किस बौद्ध संत ने भारतीय-यूनानी राजा मिनांडर को बौद्ध धर्म में दीक्षित किया था?

Ans	1. सारिपुत्र
	2. वासुबन्धु
	3. अश्वघोष
	4. नागसेन

Q.38	भारत ने 2022 एशिया कप हॉकी टूर्नामेंट में निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा पदक जीता?

Ans	1. स्वर्ण
	2. कांस्य
	3. रजत
	4. कोई भी नहीं

Q.39	एक अर्थव्यवस्था के उपभोग फलन के संदर्भ में यदि एम पी सी = 0.6 है, तो एम पी एस का संभावित मान क्या है?

Ans	1. – 0.6
	2. 0.4
	3. 0.36
	4. 0.16

Q.40

Ans	1. A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
	2. A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
	3. A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
	4. A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I

Q.41	भारत ने दूसरी बार एशियाई खेलों की मेजबानी किस वर्ष में की थी?

Ans	1. 1978
	2. 1982
	3. 1990
	4. 1986

Q.42	मिसेज फनी बोन्स (Mrs Funny Bones) पुस्तक के/की लेखक/लेखिका निम्नलिखित में से कौन हैं?

Ans	1. टिस्का चोपड़ा
	2. ट्विंकल खन्ना
	3. सोहा अली खान
	4. दिव्या दत्ता

Q.43	नेहरू ट्रॉफी बोट रेस ________ में आयोजित की जाती है।

Ans	1. महाराष्ट्र
	2. आंध्र प्रदेश
	3. केरल
	4. गोवा

Q.44	अनुच्छेद 19 द्वारा गारंटीकृत छह अधिकारों को निम्नलिखित के आधार पर निलंबित किया जा सकता है: 1. युद्ध 2. बाह्य आक्रमण 3. सशस्त्र विद्रोह 4. आंतरिक गड़बड़ी

Ans	1. केवल 2, 3 और 4
	2. 2 और 3 दोनों
	3. केवल 4
	4. 1 और 2 दोनों

Q.45	निम्नलिखित में से किस वर्ष वस्तु एवं सेवा कर (राज्यों को मुआवजा) विधेयक पारित किया गया था?

Ans	1. 2017
	2. 2002
	3. 2007
	4. 2014

Q.46	उष्णकटिबंधीय चक्रवात निम्नलिखित में से किस क्षेत्र से उत्पन्न होते हैं?

Ans	1. बंगाल की खाड़ी, अरब सागर और हिंद महासागर
	2. भूमध्य सागर, अरब सागर और हिंद महासागर
	3. बंगाल की खाड़ी, अरब सागर और अटलांटिक महासागर
	4. भूमध्य सागर, प्रशांत महासागर और हिंद महासागर

Q.47	तंजौर बालासरस्वती निम्नलिखित में से किस नृत्य शैली की एक नर्तकी थीं?

Ans	1. कथक
	2. कुचिपुड़ी
	3. मोहिनीअट्टम
	4. भरतनाट्यम

Q.48	चोलों पर विजय प्राप्त करने वाला राष्ट्रकूट राजा कौन थाॽ

Ans	1. कृष्ण तृतीय
	2. कृष्ण प्रथम
	3. राजराजा प्रथम
	4. राजेंद्र

Q.49	निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा एक संवैधानिक निकाय नहीं है?

Ans	1. भारतीय निर्वाचन आयोग
	2. राष्ट्रीय पिछड़ा वर्ग आयोग
	3. भारतीय रिजर्व बैंक
	4. भारत के नियंत्रक और महालेखा परीक्षक

Q.50	निम्नलिखित में से किसने 'अनटचेबल' (Untouchable) उपन्यास लिखा था?

Ans	1. राजा राय
	2. आर.के. नारायण
	3. हरिवंशराय बच्चन
	4. मुल्क राज आनंद

Section : English Language and Comprehension

Q.1	Select the option that expresses the given sentence in indirect speech. "I am playing the keyboard," she explained.

Ans	1. She said that she had been playing the keyboard.
	2. She said that she is playing the keyboard.
	3. She explained that she was playing the keyboard.
	4. She explained that she is playing the keyboard.

Q.2	Select the option that expresses the given in indirect speech . The customer asked the tailor, “Will you have the dress ready by Tuesday?”

Ans	1. The customer asked the tailor if he would like to have the dress ready by Tuesday.
	2. The customer asked the tailor if he would have the dress ready by Tuesday.
	3. The customer asked the tailor if he will have the dress ready by Tuesday.
	4. The customer asked the tailor if he should have the dress ready by Tuesday.

Q.3	Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word. Admiration

Ans	1. Accomplish
	2. Diminish
	3. Cognisance
	4. Contempt

Q.4	Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank. It is terrible that education systems all over the world are being held in captivity due to poverty, both at the governmental and family levels, despite the fact that education is claimed to be so important for human progress and the _________ of global economies.

Ans	1. abrogation
	2. devastation
	3. dismantling
	4. revitalisation

Q.5	Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the underlined word in the given sentence. The amateur proved them all wrong.

Ans	1. Prefect
	2. Assistant
	3. Chef
	4. Professional

Q.6	Select the option that expresses the given sentence in direct speech. She said she was seeing her brother the following day.

Ans	1. She said, " I should see my brother tomorrow.”
	2. She said, “I was seeing my brother tomorrow.”
	3. She says, “I will see my brother tomorrow.”
	4. She said, “ I am seeing my brother tomorrow.”

Q.7	Identify the errors in the given sentence and choose the sentence that rectifies these errors. My idea can be key idea for cracking difficult conflicts of extremely high level.

Ans	1. My idea can be a key idea for cracking difficult conflicts of a extremely high level.
	2. My idea can be an key idea for cracking difficult conflicts of an extremely high level.
	3. My idea can be key idea for cracking difficult conflicts of an extremely high level.
	4. My idea can be a key idea for cracking difficult conflicts of an extremely high level.

Q.8	Select the correct alternative from the given options that correctly changes the form of narration in the given sentence. The solicitor said, “Let us solve the dispute over the land.”

Ans	1. The solicitor suggested that they might solve the dispute over the land.
	2. The solicitor suggested that they should solve the dispute over the land.
	3. The solicitor ordered that we should solve the dispute over the land.
	4. The solicitor wished that they should solve the dispute over the land.

Q.9	The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error. You have said that, / as he took money from you many times, / he owes you / five thousand rupees all together.

Ans	1. five thousand rupees all together
	2. as he took money from you many times,
	3. You have said that,
	4. he owes you

Q.10	Select the option that expresses the following sentence in direct speech. They said that they had been waiting for the bus for over an hour.

Ans	1. “We waited for the bus for over an hour,” they said.
	2. “We had waited for the bus for over an hour,” they said.
	3. “We are waiting for the bus for over an hour,” they said.
	4. “We have been waiting for the bus for over an hour,” they said.

Q.11	Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the word ‘Concur’ from the given sentence. Every time they met, he found it difficult to resist her odd magic.

Ans	1. difficult
	2. found
	3. met
	4. resist

Q.12	The given sentence is divided into four segments. Select the option that has the segment with a grammatical error. He will / come when / he will be / ready.

Ans	1. ready.
	2. he will be
	3. come when
	4. He will

Q.13	Given below are four jumbled sentences. Select the option that gives their correct logical sequence. A. However, the most consumed tea in the world is Indian tea. B. Tea was originated in China by its ruler, Shennong. C. India also has the credit of being the world’s largest producer. D. This is because of the tropical and sub-tropical climate present here.

Ans	1. CBAD
	2. ABCD
	3. DCAB
	4. BACD

Q.14	Sentences of a paragraph are given below in jumbled order. Arrange the sentences in the correct order to form a meaningful and coherent paragraph. P. Applied arts require an object to be functional, as well as beautiful. Q. They recognised that their work belonged to the higher social classes who had the wealth to purchase art and the leisure time to enjoy it. R. Fine art is categorised as something which only has an aesthetic or conceptual function. S. There are a number of different categories of objects and processes under the umbrella term of art which need to be explored. T. In the twentieth century, artists began to challenge the established notion of art. U. Art is typically divided into two areas: fine art (such as painting, sculpture, music and poetry), and the applied arts (such as pottery, weaving, metal working, furniture making and calligraphy).

Ans	1. SURPTQ
	2. SRPUTQ
	3. SUPQRT
	4. RPSTUQ

Q.15	Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank. Technology has made it possible for us to reach out to more students, and it has also made it possible for us to deliver the same lessons in a much more __________ manner.

Ans	1. lumbering
	2. incompetent
	3. resourceful
	4. encumbering

Q.16	The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error. That accident happened [A] /a long time ago, but [B] / I have shivered at [C] / the thought of it ever for [D].

Ans	1. B
	2. A
	3. D
	4. C

Q.17	Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word. Amplify

Ans	1. Enrich
	2. Lessen
	3. Dislike
	4. Exaggerate

Q.18	Parts of a sentence are given below in jumbled order. Select the option that arranges the parts in the correct sequence to form a meaningful sentence. (P) showcasing objects of historic, scientific and cultural interest (Q) by taking us back in time (R) museums are always (S) treasure troves of information

Ans	1. R, S, P, Q
	2. Q, S, P, R
	3. P, Q, S, R
	4. S, P, R, Q

Q.19	Identify the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word. Reliable

Ans	1. Unfamiliar
	2. Unknown
	3. Uncommon
	4. Untrustworthy

Q.20	Select the option that expresses the given sentence in passive voice. She is doing the homework.

Ans	1. The homework was being done by her.
	2. The homework was done by her.
	3. The homework is being done by her.
	4. The homework has been done by her.

Q.21	Select the option that gives the most appropriate meaning of the underlined word. Even amidst the all-pervasive silence, the noise inside her head seemed incessant.

Ans	1. To continue without any interruption
	2. To occur at irregular intervals or occasionally
	3. To impact in a strikingly negative way
	4. To follow an unknown course

Q.22	Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank. Online shopping refers to purchasing goods available on the world wide web. You have different websites which have a huge __________ of products that you can choose from.

Ans	1. assessment
	2. assortment
	3. appraisal
	4. assignment

Q.23	Parts of sentences are given below in jumbled order. Arrange the parts in the correct order to form a meaningful paragraph. The first part 'R.' is fixed. R. Men usually make more decisions A. and certainly the most important ones B. earning a livelihood in most parts of the world C. since men play a bigger role in D. they have a major say in economic matters

Ans	1. BADC
	2. ACBD
	3. DCAB
	4. ACDB

Q.24	Select the most appropriate meaning of the underlined idiom. Our neighbour told my brother to keep an eye on their pet dog in their absence.

Ans	1. To ignore something or someone
	2. To wait for something that is disturbing
	3. To look after something or someone
	4. To accomplish something too ambitious

Q.25	Parts of a sentence are given below in jumbled order. Select the option that arranges the parts in the correct sequence to form a meaningful sentence. (P) the south pole of the Moon (Q) and where no man has ever been before (R) the Artemis mission will explore (S) where ice has been confirmed to exist within craters

Ans	1. P, R, Q, S
	2. S, R, Q, P
	3. Q, P, S, R
	4. R, P, S, Q

Q.26	Identify the errors in the given sentence and choose the sentence that rectifies these errors. I have known her for many years. This time, she took unusual decision in unprejudiced way.

Ans	1. I have known her for many years. This time, she took a unusual decision in an unprejudiced way.
	2. I have known her for many years. This time, she took an unusual decision in a unprejudiced way.
	3. I have known her for many years. This time, she took an unusual decision in an unprejudiced way.
	4. I have known her for many years. This time, she took unusual decision in an unprejudiced way.

Q.27	Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank. I am _________ busy.

Ans	1. quite
	2. quiet
	3. tidily
	4. few

Q.28	Identify the error in the given sentence and select the correct sentence from the given options. The earth has a exceptional structure which may have helped in life’s arrival.

Ans	1. A earth has exceptional structure which may have helped in life’s arrival.
	2. The earth has an exceptional structure which may have helped in life’s arrival.
	3. An earth has an exceptional structure which may have helped in life’s arrival.
	4. An earth has exceptional structure which may have helped in life’s arrival.

Q.29	Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the word given in the bracket to fill in the blank. The development of the region also depended on the ________ (rapaciousness) of the corporate contribution via a social responsibility scheme.

Ans	1. generosity
	2. voracity
	3. greed
	4. violence

Q.30	Select the option that expresses the following sentence in active voice. The cake was baked by the chef in the kitchen.

Ans	1. The chef baked the cake in the kitchen.
	2. The kitchen was baking the cake by the chef.
	3. The cake is being baked by the chef in the kitchen.
	4. The cake was being baked by the chef in the kitchen.

Q.31	Select the option that will improve the underlined part of the given sentence. He was the most cleverest man I ever knew.

Ans	1. cleverer
	2. more clever
	3. cleverest
	4. most cleverer

Q.32	Select the option that gives the most appropriate meaning of the underlined word. The patient absconded from the hospital at dawn.

Ans	1. Faced lack of cooperation from the nurse
	2. Collected acknowledgement of the payment
	3. Fled away hurriedly and secretly
	4. Learned to communicate with others

Q.33	Select the option that expresses the given sentence in active voice. Some students are known to grow wise early.

Ans	1. Some students have been knowing that they grow wise early.
	2. People know that some students grow wise early.
	3. Few of us know that students grow early.
	4. We all know that students grew wise early.

Q.34	Select the option that correctly expresses the given sentence in active voice. The wounded woman was being helped by some youngsters.

Ans	1. The woman found help by some youngsters.
	2. Some youngsters were helping the wounded woman.
	3. Some youngsters have helped the wounded woman.
	4. Some youngsters helped the wounded woman.

Q.35	The following sentence has been divided into parts. One of them may contain an error. Select the part that contains the error from the given options. If you don’t find any error, mark ‘No error’ as your answer. Vishnu and his friends / were listening to / the radio all morning.

Ans	1. No error
	2. were listening to
	3. the radio all morning
	4. Vishnu and his friends

Q.36	Select the option that expresses the given sentence in active voice. Parents should be respected by their children.

Ans	1. Children shall be respecting their parents.
	2. Children should respect their parents.
	3. Children should be respecting their parents.
	4. Children are to respect their parents.

Q.37	Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word. Vanquish

Ans	1. Conquer
	2. Describe
	3. Quantify
	4. Verify

Q.38	Select the option that expresses the given sentence in reported speech. Raju said to Reghu, “Stay back.”

Ans	1. Raju orders Reghu to stay back.
	2. Raju has ordered Reghu to stay back.
	3. Raju had ordered Reghu to stay back.
	4. Raju ordered Reghu to stay back.

Q.39	Select the most appropriate adverb to fill in the blank. Over and _________ being hardworking, he is thoroughly honest.

Ans	1. again
	2. above
	3. ever
	4. over

Q.40	Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word. Admonish

Ans	1. Abide
	2. Applaud
	3. Abetment
	4. Accede

Q.41	Identify the meaning of the idiom used in the following sentence. I am feeling a bit under the weather.

Ans	1. feeling angry
	2. feeling slightly ill
	3. feeling energetic
	4. feeling lazy and bored

Q.42	Select the option that expresses the given sentence in passive voice. It is time to have tea.

Ans	1. Tea is to be taken by it.
	2. It is time for tea to be had.
	3. Time must be taken to prepare tea.
	4. Tea is to be had.

Q.43	Parts of a sentence are given below in jumbled order. Arrange the parts in the correct order to form a meaningful sentence. A: lost all his teeth B: cannot eat hard food C: he has D: consequently, he

Ans	1. ADBC
	2. BDAC
	3. DACB
	4. CADB

Q.44	Select the option that expresses the given sentence in active voice. The FIFA cup 2022 will be won by France.

Ans	1. France will win the FIFA cup 2022.
	2. France wins the FIFA cup 2022.
	3. France will be winning the FIFA cup 2022.
	4. France would win the FIFA cup 2022.

Q.45	Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word. Ignoramus

Ans	1. Playful
	2. Stupid
	3. Deceitful
	4. Cautious

Q.46	Choose the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom. To get wind of

Ans	1. To get into difficulty
	2. To recover from something
	3. To hear a piece of information that someone was trying to keep secret
	4. To escape so that you don't have to pay

Q.47	Select the option that expresses the given sentence in active voice. I am not forced to study hard by my parents.

Ans	1. My parents did not force me to study hard.
	2. My parents are not forcing me to study hard.
	3. My parents do not force me to study hard.
	4. My parents will not force me to study hard.

Q.48	Select the option that expresses the given sentence in active voice. A selected group of activists had been invited by the minister before the announcement of the strike.

Ans	1. The minister had invited a selected group of activists before the announcement of the strike.
	2. The minister invited a selected group of activists before the announcement of the strike.
	3. The minister was inviting a selected group of activists before the announcement of the strike.
	4. The minister had been inviting a selected group of activists before the announcement of the strike.

Q.49	Select the grammatically correct sentence from the options given.

Ans	1. The troll, the boy shared on social media created a big laughter.
	2. The troll, a boy shared on an social media created a big laughter.
	3. An troll, the boy shared on the social media created the big laughter.
	4. A troll, a boy shared in on social media created an big laughter.

Q.50	Select the option that expresses the given sentence in direct speech. She asked me why I was not eating.

Ans	1. She said, “Why don’t you eat?”
	2. She said, “Why are you not eating?”
	3. She said, “Why am I not eating?”
	4. She said, “Why is he not eating?”

Q.51	Select the option that expresses the given sentence in indirect speech. She said, “I have finished my work.”

Ans	1. She said that she has finished her work.
	2. She said that she had finished her work.
	3. She said that she would finish her work.
	4. She said that she will finish her work.

Q.52	Select the most appropriate meaning of the underlined idiom in the given sentence. He goes hard with one and all.

Ans	1. To be busy over trifles
	2. To remain neutral
	3. To be unreliable
	4. To be difficult

Q.53	Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank. They could not reach the railway station before the train _______.

Ans	1. leave
	2. left
	3. has been leaving
	4. has leave

Q.54	Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. Elegance and intelligence had the two most important traits of young ladies.

Ans	1. are the
	2. been the
	3. am being the
	4. has been the

Q.55	Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. The patient couldn’t survive the injuries and succumbed with death.

Ans	1. succumbed into death
	2. succumbed to death
	3. succumbed by death
	4. succumbed in death

Q.56	Read the sentence carefully and select the most suitable idiom to fill in the blank. Extreme inflation in the country has led to a hike in the price of day-to-day commodity. It has made it difficult to __________.

Ans	1. a blessing in disguise
	2. keep body and soul together
	3. break a leg
	4. costs an arm and a leg

Q.57	Select the option that expresses the given sentence in passive form. Who took Bruno for a walk?

Ans	1. By whom was Bruno taken for a walk?
	2. By whom has Bruno been taken for a walk?
	3. With whom Bruno is taken for a walk?
	4. By whom will Bruno be taken for a walk?

Q.58	Select the option that expresses the given sentence in indirect speech. She said to me, “I shall come to meet you tomorrow.”

Ans	1. She told me that she will come to meet me tomorrow.
	2. She tells me that she could come to meet me tomorrow.
	3. She asked me that could she come to meet me the next day.
	4. She told me that she would come to meet me the next day.

Q.59	Select the option that expresses the given sentence in direct speech. She said that she could bake cookies.

Ans	1. She says, “I can bake cookies.”
	2. She said, “I can bake cookies.”
	3. She had said, “I can bake cookies.”
	4. She said, “I may bake cookies.”

Q.60	Select the option that expresses the given sentence in indirect speech. He said, “I have finished my homework.”

Ans	1. He said that he had finished his homework.
	2. He said that he would finish his homework.
	3. He said that he has finished his homework.
	4. He said that he had to finish his homework.

Q.61	Select the option that expresses the given sentence in active voice. Devotional songs are sung superbly by Sastri.

Ans	1. Sastri sings devotional songs superbly.
	2. Sastri has been singing devotional songs superbly.
	3. Sastri is singing devotional songs superbly.
	4. Sastri has superbly sung devotional songs.

Q.62	Select the option that expresses the given sentence in passive voice. Malathi loves Reena.

Ans	1. Reena was loved by Malathi.
	2. Reena is being loved by Malathi.
	3. Reena was being loved by Malathi.
	4. Reena is loved by Malathi.

Q.63	Select the most appropriate idiom that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. Unless sales improve next month, the company will be in a critical position in which failure seems imminent.

Ans	1. up against the wall
	2. a damp squib
	3. a mare's nest
	4. hitting the sack

Q.64	Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the underlined word. Rukhsana was left alone in the house again, but fear was now her constant companion.

Ans	1. friendly
	2. changing
	3. boring
	4. steady

Q.65	Identify the error in the given sentence and select the option that correctly rectifies the error. PIEZO2 plays an critical role along with Piezo1 to regulate a important physiological process for brain to understand.

Ans	1. PIEZO2 plays the critical role along with Piezo1 to regulate the important physiological process for brain to understand.
	2. PIEZO2 plays a critical role along with Piezo1 to regulate an important physiological process for the brain to understand.
	3. PIEZO2 plays critical role along with Piezo1 to regulate a important physiological process for brain to understand.
	4. PIEZO2 plays an critical role along with Piezo1 to regulate the important physiological process for brain to understand.

Q.66	Parts of the following sentence have been given as options. Select the option that contains an error. He will has been helping me with tending to my plants.

Ans	1. He will has been
	2. helping me
	3. to my plants
	4. with tending

Q.67	Parts of the following sentence have been given as options. Select the option that contains an error. It became a known fact that they most played techno music at every party.

Ans	1. that
	2. every
	3. most
	4. at

Q.68	Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word. Hind

Ans	1. Rear
	2. Anterior
	3. Ventral
	4. Fore

Q.69	Which of the following sentence is in the past continuous tense?

Ans	1. They would have watched TV all evening.
	2. They watched TV all evening.
	3. They shall be watching TV all evening.
	4. They were watching TV all evening.

Q.70	Select the option that expresses the given sentence in indirect speech. My friend said to me, “Do you know the recipe of mango ice-cream?”

Ans	1. My friend asked me that I knew the recipe of mango ice-cream.
	2. My friend asked me if I know the recipe of mango ice-cream.
	3. My friend asked me that I know the recipe of mango ice-cream.
	4. My friend asked me if I knew the recipe of mango ice-cream.

	Comprehension:
	In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in each blank. Earthquakes represent a highly consequential and perilous category of (1)__________ disasters. These phenomena arise as a result of several variables and result in subsequent consequences. An earthquake refers to the abrupt release of accumulated strain (2)_________ within the Earth's crust, leading to seismic shaking that propagates outward from the (3)________. In essence, seismic activity refers to the abrupt displacement of the Earth's surface, commonly referred to as an earthquake, tremor or temblor. Earthquakes exhibit a range of magnitudes, encompassing both imperceptible tremors and catastrophic events capable of causing (4)__________ urban devastation. Seismicity refers to the occurrence, magnitude and classification of earthquakes. Earthquakes can also arise as a (5)___________ of volcanic activity. Moreover, these phenomena have diverse impacts that disrupt both individuals' livelihoods and physical assets.

	SubQuestion No : 71
Q.71	Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1.

Ans	1. unnatural
	2. artificial
	3. unrealistic
	4. natural

	Comprehension:
	In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in each blank. Earthquakes represent a highly consequential and perilous category of (1)__________ disasters. These phenomena arise as a result of several variables and result in subsequent consequences. An earthquake refers to the abrupt release of accumulated strain (2)_________ within the Earth's crust, leading to seismic shaking that propagates outward from the (3)________. In essence, seismic activity refers to the abrupt displacement of the Earth's surface, commonly referred to as an earthquake, tremor or temblor. Earthquakes exhibit a range of magnitudes, encompassing both imperceptible tremors and catastrophic events capable of causing (4)__________ urban devastation. Seismicity refers to the occurrence, magnitude and classification of earthquakes. Earthquakes can also arise as a (5)___________ of volcanic activity. Moreover, these phenomena have diverse impacts that disrupt both individuals' livelihoods and physical assets.

	SubQuestion No : 72
Q.72	Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2.

Ans	1. light
	2. energy
	3. mineral
	4. metal

	Comprehension:
	In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in each blank. Earthquakes represent a highly consequential and perilous category of (1)__________ disasters. These phenomena arise as a result of several variables and result in subsequent consequences. An earthquake refers to the abrupt release of accumulated strain (2)_________ within the Earth's crust, leading to seismic shaking that propagates outward from the (3)________. In essence, seismic activity refers to the abrupt displacement of the Earth's surface, commonly referred to as an earthquake, tremor or temblor. Earthquakes exhibit a range of magnitudes, encompassing both imperceptible tremors and catastrophic events capable of causing (4)__________ urban devastation. Seismicity refers to the occurrence, magnitude and classification of earthquakes. Earthquakes can also arise as a (5)___________ of volcanic activity. Moreover, these phenomena have diverse impacts that disrupt both individuals' livelihoods and physical assets.

	SubQuestion No : 73
Q.73	Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3.

Ans	1. middleman
	2. epicentre
	3. paradoxical
	4. opened

	Comprehension:
	In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in each blank. Earthquakes represent a highly consequential and perilous category of (1)__________ disasters. These phenomena arise as a result of several variables and result in subsequent consequences. An earthquake refers to the abrupt release of accumulated strain (2)_________ within the Earth's crust, leading to seismic shaking that propagates outward from the (3)________. In essence, seismic activity refers to the abrupt displacement of the Earth's surface, commonly referred to as an earthquake, tremor or temblor. Earthquakes exhibit a range of magnitudes, encompassing both imperceptible tremors and catastrophic events capable of causing (4)__________ urban devastation. Seismicity refers to the occurrence, magnitude and classification of earthquakes. Earthquakes can also arise as a (5)___________ of volcanic activity. Moreover, these phenomena have diverse impacts that disrupt both individuals' livelihoods and physical assets.

	SubQuestion No : 74
Q.74	Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4.

Ans	1. extensive
	2. limited
	3. small
	4. minimal

	Comprehension:
	In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in each blank. Earthquakes represent a highly consequential and perilous category of (1)__________ disasters. These phenomena arise as a result of several variables and result in subsequent consequences. An earthquake refers to the abrupt release of accumulated strain (2)_________ within the Earth's crust, leading to seismic shaking that propagates outward from the (3)________. In essence, seismic activity refers to the abrupt displacement of the Earth's surface, commonly referred to as an earthquake, tremor or temblor. Earthquakes exhibit a range of magnitudes, encompassing both imperceptible tremors and catastrophic events capable of causing (4)__________ urban devastation. Seismicity refers to the occurrence, magnitude and classification of earthquakes. Earthquakes can also arise as a (5)___________ of volcanic activity. Moreover, these phenomena have diverse impacts that disrupt both individuals' livelihoods and physical assets.

	SubQuestion No : 75
Q.75	Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 5.

Ans	1. direction
	2. classification
	3. name
	4. consequence

	Comprehension:
	In the following passage some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in each blank. Frogs are the amphibians. It indicates that they are (1)_______ of living both in water and on land. Frogs have long back legs that propel them into the air, making them excellent jumpers. A large portion of them have suckers on their fingers, which assist them with landing securely on tricky surfaces. They find quick bugs, with the (2)_______ of their long tacky tongues. Frogs do not all contain poison. When threatened by predators, some frogs use a venom that they have developed. The golden dart frog is the world’s most lethal frog. One frog’s skin has the potential to kill up to 1,000 people. The normal frog contains a toxic substance, which it (3)_______ from its skin, when gone after. This poison affects both canines and felines. However, they rarely experience serious (4)______. Cane toads are extremely large toads that are laced with drugs. If taken, these drugs can result in hallucinations. Central and South America are home to the poison dart frogs. Because indigenous people use their toxic excretions to (5)______ the tips of arrows and blow darts, the frogs are frequently referred to as poison arrow frogs or poison dart frogs.

	SubQuestion No : 76
Q.76	Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1.

Ans	1. susceptible
	2. dispose
	3. capable
	4. incline

	Comprehension:
	In the following passage some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in each blank. Frogs are the amphibians. It indicates that they are (1)_______ of living both in water and on land. Frogs have long back legs that propel them into the air, making them excellent jumpers. A large portion of them have suckers on their fingers, which assist them with landing securely on tricky surfaces. They find quick bugs, with the (2)_______ of their long tacky tongues. Frogs do not all contain poison. When threatened by predators, some frogs use a venom that they have developed. The golden dart frog is the world’s most lethal frog. One frog’s skin has the potential to kill up to 1,000 people. The normal frog contains a toxic substance, which it (3)_______ from its skin, when gone after. This poison affects both canines and felines. However, they rarely experience serious (4)______. Cane toads are extremely large toads that are laced with drugs. If taken, these drugs can result in hallucinations. Central and South America are home to the poison dart frogs. Because indigenous people use their toxic excretions to (5)______ the tips of arrows and blow darts, the frogs are frequently referred to as poison arrow frogs or poison dart frogs.

	SubQuestion No : 77
Q.77	Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2.

Ans	1. encouragement
	2. assistance
	3. excuse
	4. backing

	Comprehension:
	In the following passage some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in each blank. Frogs are the amphibians. It indicates that they are (1)_______ of living both in water and on land. Frogs have long back legs that propel them into the air, making them excellent jumpers. A large portion of them have suckers on their fingers, which assist them with landing securely on tricky surfaces. They find quick bugs, with the (2)_______ of their long tacky tongues. Frogs do not all contain poison. When threatened by predators, some frogs use a venom that they have developed. The golden dart frog is the world’s most lethal frog. One frog’s skin has the potential to kill up to 1,000 people. The normal frog contains a toxic substance, which it (3)_______ from its skin, when gone after. This poison affects both canines and felines. However, they rarely experience serious (4)______. Cane toads are extremely large toads that are laced with drugs. If taken, these drugs can result in hallucinations. Central and South America are home to the poison dart frogs. Because indigenous people use their toxic excretions to (5)______ the tips of arrows and blow darts, the frogs are frequently referred to as poison arrow frogs or poison dart frogs.

	SubQuestion No : 78
Q.78	Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3.

Ans	1. glows
	2. radiates
	3. spells
	4. squeaks

	Comprehension:
	In the following passage some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in each blank. Frogs are the amphibians. It indicates that they are (1)_______ of living both in water and on land. Frogs have long back legs that propel them into the air, making them excellent jumpers. A large portion of them have suckers on their fingers, which assist them with landing securely on tricky surfaces. They find quick bugs, with the (2)_______ of their long tacky tongues. Frogs do not all contain poison. When threatened by predators, some frogs use a venom that they have developed. The golden dart frog is the world’s most lethal frog. One frog’s skin has the potential to kill up to 1,000 people. The normal frog contains a toxic substance, which it (3)_______ from its skin, when gone after. This poison affects both canines and felines. However, they rarely experience serious (4)______. Cane toads are extremely large toads that are laced with drugs. If taken, these drugs can result in hallucinations. Central and South America are home to the poison dart frogs. Because indigenous people use their toxic excretions to (5)______ the tips of arrows and blow darts, the frogs are frequently referred to as poison arrow frogs or poison dart frogs.

	SubQuestion No : 79
Q.79	Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4.

Ans	1. alters
	2. consequences
	3. sequels
	4. disturbs

	Comprehension:
	In the following passage some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in each blank. Frogs are the amphibians. It indicates that they are (1)_______ of living both in water and on land. Frogs have long back legs that propel them into the air, making them excellent jumpers. A large portion of them have suckers on their fingers, which assist them with landing securely on tricky surfaces. They find quick bugs, with the (2)_______ of their long tacky tongues. Frogs do not all contain poison. When threatened by predators, some frogs use a venom that they have developed. The golden dart frog is the world’s most lethal frog. One frog’s skin has the potential to kill up to 1,000 people. The normal frog contains a toxic substance, which it (3)_______ from its skin, when gone after. This poison affects both canines and felines. However, they rarely experience serious (4)______. Cane toads are extremely large toads that are laced with drugs. If taken, these drugs can result in hallucinations. Central and South America are home to the poison dart frogs. Because indigenous people use their toxic excretions to (5)______ the tips of arrows and blow darts, the frogs are frequently referred to as poison arrow frogs or poison dart frogs.

	SubQuestion No : 80
Q.80	Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 5.

Ans	1. hate
	2. malice
	3. bane
	4. poison

	Comprehension:
	In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in each blank. For most of us who are born and live in India, social inequality and (1)_____are facts of life. We see (2)___ on the streets and on railway platforms. We see young children (3)____ as domestic workers, construction helpers, cleaners and helpers in streetside restaurants (dhabas) and tea-shops. We are not (4)____ at the sight of small children, who work as domestic workers in middle class urban homes, carrying the school bags of older children to school. It does not immediately (5)_______ us as unjust that some children are denied schooling.

	SubQuestion No : 81
Q.81	Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1.

Ans	1. gatherings
	2. harmony
	3. mobility
	4. exclusion

	Comprehension:
	In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in each blank. For most of us who are born and live in India, social inequality and (1)_____are facts of life. We see (2)___ on the streets and on railway platforms. We see young children (3)____ as domestic workers, construction helpers, cleaners and helpers in streetside restaurants (dhabas) and tea-shops. We are not (4)____ at the sight of small children, who work as domestic workers in middle class urban homes, carrying the school bags of older children to school. It does not immediately (5)_______ us as unjust that some children are denied schooling.

	SubQuestion No : 82
Q.82	Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2.

Ans	1. vehicles
	2. airports
	3. beggars
	4. parliaments

	Comprehension:
	In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in each blank. For most of us who are born and live in India, social inequality and (1)_____are facts of life. We see (2)___ on the streets and on railway platforms. We see young children (3)____ as domestic workers, construction helpers, cleaners and helpers in streetside restaurants (dhabas) and tea-shops. We are not (4)____ at the sight of small children, who work as domestic workers in middle class urban homes, carrying the school bags of older children to school. It does not immediately (5)_______ us as unjust that some children are denied schooling.

	SubQuestion No : 83
Q.83	Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3.

Ans	1. excelling
	2. cheating
	3. revolting
	4. labouring

	Comprehension:
	In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in each blank. For most of us who are born and live in India, social inequality and (1)_____are facts of life. We see (2)___ on the streets and on railway platforms. We see young children (3)____ as domestic workers, construction helpers, cleaners and helpers in streetside restaurants (dhabas) and tea-shops. We are not (4)____ at the sight of small children, who work as domestic workers in middle class urban homes, carrying the school bags of older children to school. It does not immediately (5)_______ us as unjust that some children are denied schooling.

	SubQuestion No : 84
Q.84	Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4.

Ans	1. afraid
	2. surprised
	3. composed
	4. envious

	Comprehension:
	In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in each blank. For most of us who are born and live in India, social inequality and (1)_____are facts of life. We see (2)___ on the streets and on railway platforms. We see young children (3)____ as domestic workers, construction helpers, cleaners and helpers in streetside restaurants (dhabas) and tea-shops. We are not (4)____ at the sight of small children, who work as domestic workers in middle class urban homes, carrying the school bags of older children to school. It does not immediately (5)_______ us as unjust that some children are denied schooling.

	SubQuestion No : 85
Q.85	Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 5.

Ans	1. strike
	2. touch
	3. slap
	4. force

	Comprehension:
	In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in each blank. Research on infections over the past few decades has focused on hospitals, day-care facilities and schools, but (1)_____ attention was paid to the home. Today, the increase of foodborne illness and a (2)_____ need for home health care have focused interest on hygiene and cleanliness in the home. ‘Hygiene’ refers to conditions or practices by which people maintain or promote good health by keeping themselves and their surroundings (3)____. Even in our contemporary society, good hygiene practices continue to be the primary disease-prevention strategy. Hygiene is one of the silent victories of public health. Personal hygiene and household cleanliness practices affect the risk (4)____spreading infectious disease. There are many disease-causing microbes whose transmission can be controlled by proper personal hygiene and household cleaning practices. A framework for developing practical home strategies to manage risk from infections is (5)_____.

	SubQuestion No : 86
Q.86	Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no. 1.

Ans	1. no little
	2. little
	3. the little
	4. a little

	Comprehension:
	In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in each blank. Research on infections over the past few decades has focused on hospitals, day-care facilities and schools, but (1)_____ attention was paid to the home. Today, the increase of foodborne illness and a (2)_____ need for home health care have focused interest on hygiene and cleanliness in the home. ‘Hygiene’ refers to conditions or practices by which people maintain or promote good health by keeping themselves and their surroundings (3)____. Even in our contemporary society, good hygiene practices continue to be the primary disease-prevention strategy. Hygiene is one of the silent victories of public health. Personal hygiene and household cleanliness practices affect the risk (4)____spreading infectious disease. There are many disease-causing microbes whose transmission can be controlled by proper personal hygiene and household cleaning practices. A framework for developing practical home strategies to manage risk from infections is (5)_____.

	SubQuestion No : 87
Q.87	Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no. 2.

Ans	1. rare
	2. decreasing
	3. declining
	4. growing

	Comprehension:
	In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in each blank. Research on infections over the past few decades has focused on hospitals, day-care facilities and schools, but (1)_____ attention was paid to the home. Today, the increase of foodborne illness and a (2)_____ need for home health care have focused interest on hygiene and cleanliness in the home. ‘Hygiene’ refers to conditions or practices by which people maintain or promote good health by keeping themselves and their surroundings (3)____. Even in our contemporary society, good hygiene practices continue to be the primary disease-prevention strategy. Hygiene is one of the silent victories of public health. Personal hygiene and household cleanliness practices affect the risk (4)____spreading infectious disease. There are many disease-causing microbes whose transmission can be controlled by proper personal hygiene and household cleaning practices. A framework for developing practical home strategies to manage risk from infections is (5)_____.

	SubQuestion No : 88
Q.88	Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no. 3.

Ans	1. close
	2. cluttered
	3. clean
	4. clear

	Comprehension:
	In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in each blank. Research on infections over the past few decades has focused on hospitals, day-care facilities and schools, but (1)_____ attention was paid to the home. Today, the increase of foodborne illness and a (2)_____ need for home health care have focused interest on hygiene and cleanliness in the home. ‘Hygiene’ refers to conditions or practices by which people maintain or promote good health by keeping themselves and their surroundings (3)____. Even in our contemporary society, good hygiene practices continue to be the primary disease-prevention strategy. Hygiene is one of the silent victories of public health. Personal hygiene and household cleanliness practices affect the risk (4)____spreading infectious disease. There are many disease-causing microbes whose transmission can be controlled by proper personal hygiene and household cleaning practices. A framework for developing practical home strategies to manage risk from infections is (5)_____.

	SubQuestion No : 89
Q.89	Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no. 4.

Ans	1. about
	2. for
	3. at
	4. of

	Comprehension:
	In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in each blank. Research on infections over the past few decades has focused on hospitals, day-care facilities and schools, but (1)_____ attention was paid to the home. Today, the increase of foodborne illness and a (2)_____ need for home health care have focused interest on hygiene and cleanliness in the home. ‘Hygiene’ refers to conditions or practices by which people maintain or promote good health by keeping themselves and their surroundings (3)____. Even in our contemporary society, good hygiene practices continue to be the primary disease-prevention strategy. Hygiene is one of the silent victories of public health. Personal hygiene and household cleanliness practices affect the risk (4)____spreading infectious disease. There are many disease-causing microbes whose transmission can be controlled by proper personal hygiene and household cleaning practices. A framework for developing practical home strategies to manage risk from infections is (5)_____.

	SubQuestion No : 90
Q.90	Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no. 5.

Ans	1. impossible
	2. ineffective
	3. risky
	4. required

	Comprehension:
	Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow. Scarlett O'Hara famously asked her husband, Rhett Butler, “"Where shall I go?" to which he famously replied, "Frankly, my dear, I don't give a damn." One of the finest movie quotations ever is found toward the end of director Victor Fleming’s 1939 American historical romantic epic film, Gone with the Wind, it's also one of all-time favourite lines from a movie. But in 1930s American society, the term ‘damn’ was a swear word. Due to the word’s offensive nature and consequent prohibition by the 1930 Motion Picture Production Code, sometimes known as the ‘Hays Code’, American film censors insisted on its removal two months prior to the movie’s release. A few weeks before the movie's release, the Motion Picture Association of America board amended the Production Code, which caused the censors to change their minds. A word that had originally been offensive became suddenly unoffensive, most likely as a result of the changed sensitivities of American culture that made it possible to update the Motion Picture Production Code. Since then, American perceptions of these issues have advanced significantly. What is offensive to society will continue to be offensive unless its sensibilities significantly shift. People’s senses, belief systems, conventions, and practises don’t change suddenly. They develop slowly. Therefore, it is meaningless to inquire as to why something should be offensive to some while not being so to others, or why people aren’t saner and more tolerant when it comes to sensitive and disputed social topics. Cinema has a significant impact on its consumers since it is a captivating audio-visual medium of entertainment that teaches information, knowledge, beliefs, values, etc. A film’s effects on people and society can be either beneficial or bad depending on its subject matter and method of presentation. While a movie may be suitable for certain people’s age and sensibilities, it may not be suitable for other people’s age and sensibilities. Not everyone is intended to watch every movie. A controversial movie might also spark societal turmoil or even violence. As a result, every nation requires a formal agency to oversee its cinema ethics and policy. In India, the Central Board of Film Certification (CBFC), sometimes known as the ‘Censor Board’, must certify a movie as appropriate for the purpose before it can be released for public screening. Under the Cinematograph Act of 1952, the CBFC, which operates as a statutory agency under the Ministry of Information and Broadcasting, controls how movies are shown. Its responsibility is to make sure that the nation’s citizens enjoy wholesome enjoyment through cinematic media. The CBFC is required to certify that a movie, in whole or in part, does not jeopardise India’s sovereignty and integrity, jeopardise its security and relations with foreign states, cause public disorder or crime, cause defamation or court contempt, violate social norms and values, offend any group of people or community, etc.

	SubQuestion No : 91
Q.91	Why does CBFC have to certify and control the content shown in a movie?

Ans	1. To violate social norms
	2. To cause public disorder or crime
	3. To jeopardise India’s security
	4. To not jeopardise India’s sovereignty and integrity

	Comprehension:
	Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow. Scarlett O'Hara famously asked her husband, Rhett Butler, “"Where shall I go?" to which he famously replied, "Frankly, my dear, I don't give a damn." One of the finest movie quotations ever is found toward the end of director Victor Fleming’s 1939 American historical romantic epic film, Gone with the Wind, it's also one of all-time favourite lines from a movie. But in 1930s American society, the term ‘damn’ was a swear word. Due to the word’s offensive nature and consequent prohibition by the 1930 Motion Picture Production Code, sometimes known as the ‘Hays Code’, American film censors insisted on its removal two months prior to the movie’s release. A few weeks before the movie's release, the Motion Picture Association of America board amended the Production Code, which caused the censors to change their minds. A word that had originally been offensive became suddenly unoffensive, most likely as a result of the changed sensitivities of American culture that made it possible to update the Motion Picture Production Code. Since then, American perceptions of these issues have advanced significantly. What is offensive to society will continue to be offensive unless its sensibilities significantly shift. People’s senses, belief systems, conventions, and practises don’t change suddenly. They develop slowly. Therefore, it is meaningless to inquire as to why something should be offensive to some while not being so to others, or why people aren’t saner and more tolerant when it comes to sensitive and disputed social topics. Cinema has a significant impact on its consumers since it is a captivating audio-visual medium of entertainment that teaches information, knowledge, beliefs, values, etc. A film’s effects on people and society can be either beneficial or bad depending on its subject matter and method of presentation. While a movie may be suitable for certain people’s age and sensibilities, it may not be suitable for other people’s age and sensibilities. Not everyone is intended to watch every movie. A controversial movie might also spark societal turmoil or even violence. As a result, every nation requires a formal agency to oversee its cinema ethics and policy. In India, the Central Board of Film Certification (CBFC), sometimes known as the ‘Censor Board’, must certify a movie as appropriate for the purpose before it can be released for public screening. Under the Cinematograph Act of 1952, the CBFC, which operates as a statutory agency under the Ministry of Information and Broadcasting, controls how movies are shown. Its responsibility is to make sure that the nation’s citizens enjoy wholesome enjoyment through cinematic media. The CBFC is required to certify that a movie, in whole or in part, does not jeopardise India’s sovereignty and integrity, jeopardise its security and relations with foreign states, cause public disorder or crime, cause defamation or court contempt, violate social norms and values, offend any group of people or community, etc.

	SubQuestion No : 92
Q.92	Why/how did the word, which had originally been offensive, become unoffensive suddenly?

Ans	1. Because of the control by the Censor Board
	2. Because of the conventions
	3. Because of people’s age and norms
	4. Because of changed sensitivity of American culture

	Comprehension:
	Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow. Scarlett O'Hara famously asked her husband, Rhett Butler, “"Where shall I go?" to which he famously replied, "Frankly, my dear, I don't give a damn." One of the finest movie quotations ever is found toward the end of director Victor Fleming’s 1939 American historical romantic epic film, Gone with the Wind, it's also one of all-time favourite lines from a movie. But in 1930s American society, the term ‘damn’ was a swear word. Due to the word’s offensive nature and consequent prohibition by the 1930 Motion Picture Production Code, sometimes known as the ‘Hays Code’, American film censors insisted on its removal two months prior to the movie’s release. A few weeks before the movie's release, the Motion Picture Association of America board amended the Production Code, which caused the censors to change their minds. A word that had originally been offensive became suddenly unoffensive, most likely as a result of the changed sensitivities of American culture that made it possible to update the Motion Picture Production Code. Since then, American perceptions of these issues have advanced significantly. What is offensive to society will continue to be offensive unless its sensibilities significantly shift. People’s senses, belief systems, conventions, and practises don’t change suddenly. They develop slowly. Therefore, it is meaningless to inquire as to why something should be offensive to some while not being so to others, or why people aren’t saner and more tolerant when it comes to sensitive and disputed social topics. Cinema has a significant impact on its consumers since it is a captivating audio-visual medium of entertainment that teaches information, knowledge, beliefs, values, etc. A film’s effects on people and society can be either beneficial or bad depending on its subject matter and method of presentation. While a movie may be suitable for certain people’s age and sensibilities, it may not be suitable for other people’s age and sensibilities. Not everyone is intended to watch every movie. A controversial movie might also spark societal turmoil or even violence. As a result, every nation requires a formal agency to oversee its cinema ethics and policy. In India, the Central Board of Film Certification (CBFC), sometimes known as the ‘Censor Board’, must certify a movie as appropriate for the purpose before it can be released for public screening. Under the Cinematograph Act of 1952, the CBFC, which operates as a statutory agency under the Ministry of Information and Broadcasting, controls how movies are shown. Its responsibility is to make sure that the nation’s citizens enjoy wholesome enjoyment through cinematic media. The CBFC is required to certify that a movie, in whole or in part, does not jeopardise India’s sovereignty and integrity, jeopardise its security and relations with foreign states, cause public disorder or crime, cause defamation or court contempt, violate social norms and values, offend any group of people or community, etc.

	SubQuestion No : 93
Q.93	What is the passage based upon?

Ans	1. Motion picture production code
	2. Action epic film
	3. Trending movies
	4. Impact of cinema on people's sensibilities

	Comprehension:
	Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow. Scarlett O'Hara famously asked her husband, Rhett Butler, “"Where shall I go?" to which he famously replied, "Frankly, my dear, I don't give a damn." One of the finest movie quotations ever is found toward the end of director Victor Fleming’s 1939 American historical romantic epic film, Gone with the Wind, it's also one of all-time favourite lines from a movie. But in 1930s American society, the term ‘damn’ was a swear word. Due to the word’s offensive nature and consequent prohibition by the 1930 Motion Picture Production Code, sometimes known as the ‘Hays Code’, American film censors insisted on its removal two months prior to the movie’s release. A few weeks before the movie's release, the Motion Picture Association of America board amended the Production Code, which caused the censors to change their minds. A word that had originally been offensive became suddenly unoffensive, most likely as a result of the changed sensitivities of American culture that made it possible to update the Motion Picture Production Code. Since then, American perceptions of these issues have advanced significantly. What is offensive to society will continue to be offensive unless its sensibilities significantly shift. People’s senses, belief systems, conventions, and practises don’t change suddenly. They develop slowly. Therefore, it is meaningless to inquire as to why something should be offensive to some while not being so to others, or why people aren’t saner and more tolerant when it comes to sensitive and disputed social topics. Cinema has a significant impact on its consumers since it is a captivating audio-visual medium of entertainment that teaches information, knowledge, beliefs, values, etc. A film’s effects on people and society can be either beneficial or bad depending on its subject matter and method of presentation. While a movie may be suitable for certain people’s age and sensibilities, it may not be suitable for other people’s age and sensibilities. Not everyone is intended to watch every movie. A controversial movie might also spark societal turmoil or even violence. As a result, every nation requires a formal agency to oversee its cinema ethics and policy. In India, the Central Board of Film Certification (CBFC), sometimes known as the ‘Censor Board’, must certify a movie as appropriate for the purpose before it can be released for public screening. Under the Cinematograph Act of 1952, the CBFC, which operates as a statutory agency under the Ministry of Information and Broadcasting, controls how movies are shown. Its responsibility is to make sure that the nation’s citizens enjoy wholesome enjoyment through cinematic media. The CBFC is required to certify that a movie, in whole or in part, does not jeopardise India’s sovereignty and integrity, jeopardise its security and relations with foreign states, cause public disorder or crime, cause defamation or court contempt, violate social norms and values, offend any group of people or community, etc.

	SubQuestion No : 94
Q.94	Which of the following words was interpreted as offensive in American Society in the 1930s?

Ans	1. Damn
	2. Disputed
	3. Meaningless
	4. Code

	Comprehension:
	Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow. Scarlett O'Hara famously asked her husband, Rhett Butler, “"Where shall I go?" to which he famously replied, "Frankly, my dear, I don't give a damn." One of the finest movie quotations ever is found toward the end of director Victor Fleming’s 1939 American historical romantic epic film, Gone with the Wind, it's also one of all-time favourite lines from a movie. But in 1930s American society, the term ‘damn’ was a swear word. Due to the word’s offensive nature and consequent prohibition by the 1930 Motion Picture Production Code, sometimes known as the ‘Hays Code’, American film censors insisted on its removal two months prior to the movie’s release. A few weeks before the movie's release, the Motion Picture Association of America board amended the Production Code, which caused the censors to change their minds. A word that had originally been offensive became suddenly unoffensive, most likely as a result of the changed sensitivities of American culture that made it possible to update the Motion Picture Production Code. Since then, American perceptions of these issues have advanced significantly. What is offensive to society will continue to be offensive unless its sensibilities significantly shift. People’s senses, belief systems, conventions, and practises don’t change suddenly. They develop slowly. Therefore, it is meaningless to inquire as to why something should be offensive to some while not being so to others, or why people aren’t saner and more tolerant when it comes to sensitive and disputed social topics. Cinema has a significant impact on its consumers since it is a captivating audio-visual medium of entertainment that teaches information, knowledge, beliefs, values, etc. A film’s effects on people and society can be either beneficial or bad depending on its subject matter and method of presentation. While a movie may be suitable for certain people’s age and sensibilities, it may not be suitable for other people’s age and sensibilities. Not everyone is intended to watch every movie. A controversial movie might also spark societal turmoil or even violence. As a result, every nation requires a formal agency to oversee its cinema ethics and policy. In India, the Central Board of Film Certification (CBFC), sometimes known as the ‘Censor Board’, must certify a movie as appropriate for the purpose before it can be released for public screening. Under the Cinematograph Act of 1952, the CBFC, which operates as a statutory agency under the Ministry of Information and Broadcasting, controls how movies are shown. Its responsibility is to make sure that the nation’s citizens enjoy wholesome enjoyment through cinematic media. The CBFC is required to certify that a movie, in whole or in part, does not jeopardise India’s sovereignty and integrity, jeopardise its security and relations with foreign states, cause public disorder or crime, cause defamation or court contempt, violate social norms and values, offend any group of people or community, etc.

	SubQuestion No : 95
Q.95	Identify the structure of the passage.

Ans	1. Descriptive
	2. Classification
	3. Sequential
	4. Compare and contrast

	Comprehension:
	Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow. Financial literacy is the ability to understand and effectively use financial skills. These financial skills are as simple as budgeting, investing, credit management, and financial management. In other words, financial literacy is the ability to manage money. A strong foundation of these financial skills will help in achieving various life goals like retirement, education, and even going on a vacation. Financial literacy includes many skills. However, the most popular ones are budgeting, managing expenses, paying off debt, and understanding the risk-return trade-off in investment products. Acquiring these skills would require one to understand the basic financial concepts like time value of money, compound interest, annualised return, and opportunity cost. With an abundance of credit products available in the market, like credit card debt, overdraft facility on debit cards, and EMI, financial literacy becomes important. Understanding debt and having basic financial knowledge will help individuals to use these products responsibly. Financial literacy often teaches individuals how to make major financial decisions. Moreover, it increases financial discipline and financial capability. This will lead to major lifestyle changes like saving and investing regularly, managing debts effectively and fulfilling life goals efficiently. Additionally, financial literacy will ensure one’s financial wellbeing and also protect individuals from financial frauds. Lacking the knowledge of these skills leads to financial illiteracy. Financial illiteracy leads to budget mismatch, higher expenses than income, accumulation of debts, poor credit score, being victims to financial frauds, and other negative consequences. Financial literacy is important because it equips one with the knowledge and skill to manage money effectively. Without financial literacy, the actions and decisions one makes or do not make with respect to savings and investments would lack a strong foundation. Financial literacy helps in understanding financial concepts better and enables one to manage their finances efficiently. Furthermore, it helps in effective money management, making financial decisions, and achieving financial stability. Moreover, financial literacy provides in-depth knowledge of financial education and various strategies that are indispensable for financial growth and success. Also, it enables one to be debt free by adopting the best debt strategies.

	SubQuestion No : 96
Q.96	Identify the tone of the passage.

Ans	1. Subjective
	2. Critical
	3. Informative
	4. Satirical

	Comprehension:
	Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow. Financial literacy is the ability to understand and effectively use financial skills. These financial skills are as simple as budgeting, investing, credit management, and financial management. In other words, financial literacy is the ability to manage money. A strong foundation of these financial skills will help in achieving various life goals like retirement, education, and even going on a vacation. Financial literacy includes many skills. However, the most popular ones are budgeting, managing expenses, paying off debt, and understanding the risk-return trade-off in investment products. Acquiring these skills would require one to understand the basic financial concepts like time value of money, compound interest, annualised return, and opportunity cost. With an abundance of credit products available in the market, like credit card debt, overdraft facility on debit cards, and EMI, financial literacy becomes important. Understanding debt and having basic financial knowledge will help individuals to use these products responsibly. Financial literacy often teaches individuals how to make major financial decisions. Moreover, it increases financial discipline and financial capability. This will lead to major lifestyle changes like saving and investing regularly, managing debts effectively and fulfilling life goals efficiently. Additionally, financial literacy will ensure one’s financial wellbeing and also protect individuals from financial frauds. Lacking the knowledge of these skills leads to financial illiteracy. Financial illiteracy leads to budget mismatch, higher expenses than income, accumulation of debts, poor credit score, being victims to financial frauds, and other negative consequences. Financial literacy is important because it equips one with the knowledge and skill to manage money effectively. Without financial literacy, the actions and decisions one makes or do not make with respect to savings and investments would lack a strong foundation. Financial literacy helps in understanding financial concepts better and enables one to manage their finances efficiently. Furthermore, it helps in effective money management, making financial decisions, and achieving financial stability. Moreover, financial literacy provides in-depth knowledge of financial education and various strategies that are indispensable for financial growth and success. Also, it enables one to be debt free by adopting the best debt strategies.

	SubQuestion No : 97
Q.97	Which of the following statement would the author of the above passage agree to?

Ans	1. Important life goals and ambitions are not typically related to financial skills.
	2. Financial literacy is important only for those who are materialistic.
	3. Effective money management skills enable early retirement.
	4. Financial literacy cannot help in budgeting and paying off the debts.

	Comprehension:
	Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow. Financial literacy is the ability to understand and effectively use financial skills. These financial skills are as simple as budgeting, investing, credit management, and financial management. In other words, financial literacy is the ability to manage money. A strong foundation of these financial skills will help in achieving various life goals like retirement, education, and even going on a vacation. Financial literacy includes many skills. However, the most popular ones are budgeting, managing expenses, paying off debt, and understanding the risk-return trade-off in investment products. Acquiring these skills would require one to understand the basic financial concepts like time value of money, compound interest, annualised return, and opportunity cost. With an abundance of credit products available in the market, like credit card debt, overdraft facility on debit cards, and EMI, financial literacy becomes important. Understanding debt and having basic financial knowledge will help individuals to use these products responsibly. Financial literacy often teaches individuals how to make major financial decisions. Moreover, it increases financial discipline and financial capability. This will lead to major lifestyle changes like saving and investing regularly, managing debts effectively and fulfilling life goals efficiently. Additionally, financial literacy will ensure one’s financial wellbeing and also protect individuals from financial frauds. Lacking the knowledge of these skills leads to financial illiteracy. Financial illiteracy leads to budget mismatch, higher expenses than income, accumulation of debts, poor credit score, being victims to financial frauds, and other negative consequences. Financial literacy is important because it equips one with the knowledge and skill to manage money effectively. Without financial literacy, the actions and decisions one makes or do not make with respect to savings and investments would lack a strong foundation. Financial literacy helps in understanding financial concepts better and enables one to manage their finances efficiently. Furthermore, it helps in effective money management, making financial decisions, and achieving financial stability. Moreover, financial literacy provides in-depth knowledge of financial education and various strategies that are indispensable for financial growth and success. Also, it enables one to be debt free by adopting the best debt strategies.

	SubQuestion No : 98
Q.98	Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word with reference to its usage in the passage. Stability

Ans	1. Ambiguity
	2. Steadiness
	3. Inefficacy
	4. Volatility

	Comprehension:
	Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow. Financial literacy is the ability to understand and effectively use financial skills. These financial skills are as simple as budgeting, investing, credit management, and financial management. In other words, financial literacy is the ability to manage money. A strong foundation of these financial skills will help in achieving various life goals like retirement, education, and even going on a vacation. Financial literacy includes many skills. However, the most popular ones are budgeting, managing expenses, paying off debt, and understanding the risk-return trade-off in investment products. Acquiring these skills would require one to understand the basic financial concepts like time value of money, compound interest, annualised return, and opportunity cost. With an abundance of credit products available in the market, like credit card debt, overdraft facility on debit cards, and EMI, financial literacy becomes important. Understanding debt and having basic financial knowledge will help individuals to use these products responsibly. Financial literacy often teaches individuals how to make major financial decisions. Moreover, it increases financial discipline and financial capability. This will lead to major lifestyle changes like saving and investing regularly, managing debts effectively and fulfilling life goals efficiently. Additionally, financial literacy will ensure one’s financial wellbeing and also protect individuals from financial frauds. Lacking the knowledge of these skills leads to financial illiteracy. Financial illiteracy leads to budget mismatch, higher expenses than income, accumulation of debts, poor credit score, being victims to financial frauds, and other negative consequences. Financial literacy is important because it equips one with the knowledge and skill to manage money effectively. Without financial literacy, the actions and decisions one makes or do not make with respect to savings and investments would lack a strong foundation. Financial literacy helps in understanding financial concepts better and enables one to manage their finances efficiently. Furthermore, it helps in effective money management, making financial decisions, and achieving financial stability. Moreover, financial literacy provides in-depth knowledge of financial education and various strategies that are indispensable for financial growth and success. Also, it enables one to be debt free by adopting the best debt strategies.

	SubQuestion No : 99
Q.99	Which of the following is NOT a result of financial illiteracy?

Ans	1. Higher expense than income
	2. Accumulation of debts
	3. Budget mismatch
	4. Financial discipline

	Comprehension:
	Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow. Financial literacy is the ability to understand and effectively use financial skills. These financial skills are as simple as budgeting, investing, credit management, and financial management. In other words, financial literacy is the ability to manage money. A strong foundation of these financial skills will help in achieving various life goals like retirement, education, and even going on a vacation. Financial literacy includes many skills. However, the most popular ones are budgeting, managing expenses, paying off debt, and understanding the risk-return trade-off in investment products. Acquiring these skills would require one to understand the basic financial concepts like time value of money, compound interest, annualised return, and opportunity cost. With an abundance of credit products available in the market, like credit card debt, overdraft facility on debit cards, and EMI, financial literacy becomes important. Understanding debt and having basic financial knowledge will help individuals to use these products responsibly. Financial literacy often teaches individuals how to make major financial decisions. Moreover, it increases financial discipline and financial capability. This will lead to major lifestyle changes like saving and investing regularly, managing debts effectively and fulfilling life goals efficiently. Additionally, financial literacy will ensure one’s financial wellbeing and also protect individuals from financial frauds. Lacking the knowledge of these skills leads to financial illiteracy. Financial illiteracy leads to budget mismatch, higher expenses than income, accumulation of debts, poor credit score, being victims to financial frauds, and other negative consequences. Financial literacy is important because it equips one with the knowledge and skill to manage money effectively. Without financial literacy, the actions and decisions one makes or do not make with respect to savings and investments would lack a strong foundation. Financial literacy helps in understanding financial concepts better and enables one to manage their finances efficiently. Furthermore, it helps in effective money management, making financial decisions, and achieving financial stability. Moreover, financial literacy provides in-depth knowledge of financial education and various strategies that are indispensable for financial growth and success. Also, it enables one to be debt free by adopting the best debt strategies.

	SubQuestion No : 100
Q.100	Select the most appropriate title for the passage.

Ans	1. Making Financial Decisions
	2. The Importance of Financial Literacy
	3. Why is Financial Illiteracy Important
	4. Tips for Financial Growth