STENO-2024 held on 10/12/2024, 12:30 PM - 2:30 PM

Average Score: UR: 109.63 | OBC: 135.48 | EWS: 122.42 | SC: 121.82 | ST: 129.5

• English
• Hindi

Section : General Intelligence and Reasoning

Q.1 If + means ×, × means −, − means ÷, and ÷ means +, what will be the value of the given expression? 24 – 4 + 18 × 3 ÷ 7 Ans 1.  112 2.  118 3. 120 4.  98

Q.2 Which two signs need to be interchanged to make the following equation correct? {(78 + 70) − (6 × 2))} ÷ 2 = 10 Ans 1. +, × 2. ÷, × 3. −, + 4. ÷, +

Q.3 Select the option that is related to the third word in the same way as the second word is related to the first word. (The words must be considered as meaningful English words and must NOT be related to each other based on the number of letters/number of consonants/vowels in the word) Map : Directions :: Manual : ________ Ans 1. Statements 2. Assumptions 3. Instructions 4. Conclusions

Q.4 Three statements are given followed by three conclusions numbered I, II and III. Assuming the statements to be true, even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements. Statements: Some teas are coffees. All coffees are waters. All teas are colas. Conclusions: I.Some colas are waters. II. Some coffees are colas. III. Some waters are teas. Ans 1. Only conclusion II follows 2. Only conclusion I follows  3. Only conclusions II and III follow 4. All the conclusions follow

Q.5 325 is related to 30 following a certain logic. Following the same logic, 424 is related to 32. Which of the following numbers is related to 16 using the same logic? Ans 1. 184 2. 182 3. 178 4. 180

Q.6 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements. Statements: All rectangles are trapezium. All trapeziums are parallelogram. No parallelogram is circle. Conclusions: I) No rectangle is circle. II) No trapezium is circle. III) All rectangles are parallelogram. Ans 1. Only conclusion II and III 2. Only conclusion I and III 3. Only conclusion I and II 4. All conclusion I, II and III

Q.7 F is the brother of D. G is the daughter of B. H is the mother of F. D is the son of E. B is married to F. How is B related to E? Ans 1. Son’s daughter 2. Son’s wife 3. Wife’s mother 4. Wife’s brother

Q.8 Which two numbers (not digits) should be interchanged to make the given equation correct? 104 ÷ 8 – 15 + 4 x 26 = 21 Ans 1. 8 and 26 2. 15 and 26 3. 8 and 15 4. 15 and 4

Q.9 Which two numbers (not digits) and which two signs should be interchanged to yield the value ‘zero’ for the following expression? 13 + 65 ÷ 2 × 8 – 21 Ans 1. – and ÷; 8 and 13 2. + and ÷; 13 and 65 3. + and ÷; 13 and 21 4. × and –; 21 and 65

Q.10 Which option represents the correct order of the given words as they would appear in an English dictionary? 1. Immigrate 2. Immediate 3. Immerse 4. Immense 5. Immature Ans 1. 5, 3, 4, 2, 1 2. 5, 4, 2, 3, 1 3. 5, 2, 4, 3, 1 4. 5, 2, 4, 1, 3

Q.11 How many triangles are there in the given figure? Ans 1. 12 2. 14 3. 11 4. 13

Q.12 In a certain code language, ‘BREATHE’ is coded as 70 and ‘TRIUMPH’ is coded as 135. How will ‘TRAGEDY’ be coded in the same language? Ans 1. 86 2. 111 3. 80 4. 95

Q.13 Two statements are given, followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. Assuming the statements to be true, even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements. Statements: All books are copies. Some books are texts. Conclusions: I. Some texts are copies. II. No text is a copy. Ans 1. Neither conclusion I nor II follows. 2. Both conclusions I and II follow. 3. Only conclusion I follows. 4. Only conclusion II follows.

Q.14 What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series? 120, 101, 139, 82, 158, ? Ans 1. 63 2. 61 3. 55 4. 58

Q.15 A is the wife of R. R is the son of C. B is the wife of C and M is the brother of C. How is M related to R? Ans 1. Father's brother 2. Father's sister 3. Son 4. Father

Q.16 In this question, two statements are followed by four conclusions given as options. Decide which conclusion is definitely true, based on the given statements. Statements: A ≥ B > C < D E < B > F ≥ G Ans 1. E < G 2. D > E 3. C > E 4. G < A

Q.17 If 2 October 2012 was Tuesday, then what was the day of the week on 1 October 2016? Ans 1. Sunday 2. Saturday 3. Friday 4. Thursday

Q.18 Which letter-cluster will replace the question mark (?) to complete the given series? DUYG, ?, PGKS, VMQY, BSWE Ans 1. KBDM 2. JZDN 3. IZFN 4. JAEM

Q.19 Which of the following equations is correct when the numbers 12 and 6 are interchanged and the signs ÷ and + are interchanged? Ans 1. 9 ÷ 6 × 4 + 12 - 3 = 18 2. 6 ÷ 4 ×5 - 12 + 3 = 30 3. 12 ÷ 3 - 8 - 6 + 1 = 15 4. 4 - 6 × 12 ÷ 5 + 7 = 22

Q.20 What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation if ‘+’ means ‘÷’, ‘−’ means ‘×’, ‘×’ means ‘+’ and ‘÷’ means ‘−’? (280 + 10 × 20) − 8 ÷ 6 = ? Ans 1. 388 2. 376 3. 378 4. 368

Q.21 Three of the following four letter-clusters are alike in a certain way and one is different. Pick the odd one out. (NOTE: The odd one out is not based on the number of vowels or consonants in the word) Ans 1. SGJE 2. PJMH 3. UEDC 4. QILG

Q.22 In a certain code language, 'SECURE' is coded as YJGXTF and 'FAMILY' is coded as LFQLNZ. How will 'HOUSES' be coded in the same language? Ans 1. NTYTGV 2. TGVYTN 3. NTYVGT 4. NTVYGV

Q.23 Select the pair which is related to each other in the same way as the following – 27:82 9:28 (NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/subtracting/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.) Ans 1. 45:138 2. 36:107 3. 18:37 4. 42:127

Q.24 Ans 1. 2. 3. 4.

Q.25 Select the option in which the numbers share the same relationship as that shared by the given triad of numbers. (4, 16, 60) (2, 4, 6) (NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/subtracting/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.) Ans 1. 7, 49, 42 2. 3, 9, 24 3. 8, 56, 448 4. 5, 25, 125

Q.26 35 is related to 48 following a certain logic. Following the same logic, 15 is related to 24. Which of the following is 80 related to, following the same logic? (NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/subtracting/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.) Ans 1. 95 2. 98 3. 89 4. 99

Q.27 Six sports persons are sitting around a circular table facing the centre. R is sitting second to the right of M. Only two people are sitting between R and K. V is sitting second to the right of S. N is an immediate neighbour of both K and V. Who is the immediate neighbour of both M and R? Ans 1. K 2. V 3. S 4. N

Q.28 Select the term from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series. DA, XU, RO, LI, ? Ans 1. FB 2. GD 3. FC 4. ED

Q.29 Two different positions of the same die are shown below. What is the number on the face opposite to the one having 6? Ans 1. 1 2. 4 3. 2 4. 5

Q.30 Which of the following terms will replace the question mark (?) in the given series? WKED, ZLHE, CMKF, FNNG, ? Ans 1. IOQH 2. HPPI 3. HOPH 4. IPQI

Q.31 Among seven people F, G, H, K, L, M and N, each has a different age. Only H is older than K. The second oldest is 38 years old. Only three people are younger than L. M is older than only N. M’s age is half of K’s age. F is 36 years old. L’s age is a multiple of 10. What can be the sum of the ages of K and L? Ans 1. 66 years  2. 56 years 3. 60 years  4. 68 years

Q.32 Suresh is now 19 years old and in college. Since he was a 5-year-old, he stayed in a hostel and is now coming back home after 14 long years. His parents have texted him the direction from the railway station to his house. See the below text message sent to Suresh by his parents and answer the following question accordingly. “When you step out of the railway station, you are facing north. Take a right and drive 4 km, you will see a T-point/junction. Take a right and drive 2 km. There will be a roundabout with four roads. Take the second left from the round-about and drive 1 km. Take a right and drive 3 km. Take a left and drive 2 km. You will find our house at the front. Come home fast.” In which direct is Suresh facing after taking a right from the railway station? Ans 1. East 2. South 3. North 4. West

Q.33 Which of the following numbers will replace the question mark (?) in the given series? 53, 52, 54, 53, 55, ? Ans 1. 55 2. 56 3. 54 4. 57

Q.34 Select the pair which is related to each other in the same way as the following – 14:205 5:34 (NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/subtracting/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.) Ans 1. 9:91 2. 25:636 3. 28:793 4. 16:247

Q.35 Three different positions of the same dice are shown. Find the number on the face opposite the face showing the number ‘4’. Ans 1. 2 2. 5 3. 3 4. 6

Q.36 Select the option that is related to the third word in the same way as the second word is related to the first word. (The words must be considered as meaningful English words and must NOT be related to each other based on the number of letters/number of consonants/vowels in the word) Immigration : Entrance :: Emigration : ? Ans 1. Bridge 2. Passport 3. Aeroplane 4. Departure

Q.37 Kamlesh got an opportunity to work in a multinational company. Tomorrow is his first day of office and he asked his fellow employee to give him directions to his new office. Kamlesh lives in Town A (in the North) and his office is in Town F. His fellow employee gave him the directions over a phone and he noted it in a piece of paper. Below is the written transcript. Read the transcript carefully and answer the question that follows. ‘Take left from Town A and drive 2 km and you will be at Town B. Take left from Town B and drive 3 km to reach Town C. Take right from Town C and drive 4 km to reach Town D. Take right from Town D and drive 4 km to reach Town E. Take left from Town E and drive 5 km to reach Town F. The office is in Town F.’ Upon reaching Town D, how many kilometres would Kamlesh have covered tomorrow? Ans 1. 9 2. 18 3. 13 4. 5

Q.38 Select the option figure that will replace the question mark (?) in the figure given below to complete the pattern. Ans 1. 2. 3. 4.

Q.39 Select the pair from among the given options that is analogous to the given pair. 10 : 999 2 : 7 (NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/subtracting/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.) Ans 1. 4 : 65 2. 8 : 315 3. 5 : 128 4. 6 : 215

Q.40 Which of the following numbers will replace the question mark (?) in the given series? 3, 10, 24, 45, 73, ? Ans 1. 109 2. 108 3. 106 4. 107

Q.41 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements. Statements: Some zinc is iron. Some zinc is silver. No silver is gold. Conclusions: I) Some zinc is not gold. II) Some zinc is gold. III) Some silver is iron. Ans 1. Only conclusion I follow 2. Only conclusion III follow 3. Only conclusion II follow 4. Conclusion Either I or II follow

Q.42 Which figure should replace the question mark (?) if the following series were to be continued? Ans 1. 2. 3. 4.

Q.43 Which of the following numbers will replace the question mark (?) in the given series? 13, 29, 61, 125, 253, 509, ? Ans 1. 1021 2. 1089 3. 1099 4. 1029

Q.44 H, I, J, K, L and M are sitting around a circular table facing the centre (but not necessarily in the same order). Only two people sit between L and M. M is the immediate neighbour of I and J. H sits to the immediate right of I. How many people sit between K and H when counted from the left of K? Ans 1. Two 2. One 3. None 4. Three

Q.45 Ans 1. A 2. C 3. B 4. D

Q.46 What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series? 614, ?, 349, 249, 168, 104 Ans 1. 469 2. 452 3. 470 4. 513

Q.47 Select the option figure that will replace the question mark (?) in the figure given below to complete the pattern. Ans 1. 2. 3. 4.

Q.48 Three of the following four are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which is the one that does NOT belong to that group? (NOTE: The odd one out is not based on the number of vowels or consonants in the word) Ans 1. GJH  2. BEC 3. UXW 4. PSQ

Q.49 Select the option that is related to the third number in the same way as the second number is related to the first number and the sixth number is related to the fifth number. 546 : 15 :: 879 : ? :: 715 : 13 Ans 1. 24 2. 21 3. 17 4. 19

Q.50 If every letter in the word IMAGINATION is changed to the next letter in the English alphabetical order and the letters of the new word are arranged in alphabetical order, which letter will be the sixth from the left end of the new word thus formed? Note: The new word formed after performing the mentioned operations may not necessarily be a meaningful English word. Ans 1. O 2. J 3. N 4. P

Section : General Awareness

Q.1 Which of the following statements is correct regarding the climate of the Indian subcontinent? Ans 1. The Thar desert protects the subcontinent from extremely cold winds from central Asia. 2.  The Western Ghat protects the subcontinent from extremely cold winds from central Asia. 3. The Himalayas protect the subcontinent from extremely cold winds from central Asia. 4. The climate of North India remains similar throughout the year

Q.2 From 1950 to 1990, the proportion of GDP contributed by the Agriculture sector ______. Ans 1. declined significantly 2. did not increase significantly 3. remained the same   4. did not decline significantly

Q.3 Which of the following statements is true about the changing pattern of India international trade? Ans 1. The share of agriculture and allied products has varied, whereas, shares of petroleum and crude products and other commodities have remained constant. 2. The share of agriculture and allied products has remained constant, whereas, shares of petroleum and crude products and other commodities have fluctuated. 3. The share of agriculture and allied products has increased, whereas, shares of petroleum and crude products and other commodities have declined. 4. The share of agriculture and allied products has declined, whereas, shares of petroleum and crude products and other commodities have increased.

Q.4 The Begumpuri mosque was built during the reign of which of the following rulers of the Delhi Sultanate? Ans 1. Firuz Shah Tughlaq 2. Sikandar Lodhi 3. Bahlul Lodhi 4. Muhammad Tughlaq

Q.5 Which of the following is an ex-officio member of the National Commission for Allied and Healthcare Profession as provided in the National Commission for Allied and Healthcare Profession Act, 2021? Ans 1. Prime Minister 2. Minister of Health and Family Welfare, Government of India 3. Joint Secretary, Department of Legal Affairs, Ministry of Law and Justice 4. Secretary, Ministry of Home Affairs, Government of India

Q.6 Which of the following was NOT including in the Pitt’s India Act of 1784? Ans 1. A committee of six government appointees, known as the Board of Control, was formed 2. The governance of India was handed over to the Governor General and a council consisting of three members 3. All the debts of the East India Company were taken over by the British Government of India 4. Madras and Bombay presidencies were brought under Bengal presidency

Q.7 Who among the following is a famous Mohiniyattam dancer? Ans 1. Sunanda Nair 2. Sheema Kermani 3. Mallika Sarabhai 4. Saswati Sen

Q.8 With reference to the city administration of Mauryan Empire, consider the following statements. a) Megasthenes put light on the Mauryan city administration. b) The city council was divided into six committees. c) City administration was well planned. Which of the above statements is/are correct? Ans 1. c, a 2. b, c 3. a, b, c 4. a, b

Q.9 Who among the following is the author of the book ‘The Inheritance of Loss’? Ans 1. Meena Kandasamy 2. Kamala Bhasin 3. Kiran Desai 4. Manju Kapoor

Q.10 Identify the type of specialised cells found in flatworms that help in osmoregulation. Ans 1. Flame cells 2. Stem cells 3. Mesoderm 4. Sperm cells

Q.11 Kharchi Puja of Tripura is celebrated in the month of ________. Ans 1. January-February 2. July-August 3. April-May 4. September-October

Q.12 __________ are amoeboid (amoeba like movement, with pseudopodia) that can squeeze out through capillary walls. Ans 1. Red blood cells  2. Guard cells  3. White blood cells  4. Nerve cells

Q.13 The correct chemical formula of the compound Magnesium Hydroxide is: Ans 1. MgOH2 2. Mg2(OH) 3. Mg(OH) 4. Mg(OH)2

Q.14 Identify the odd option from among the following. Ans 1. Fluorine 2. Chlorine 3. Bromine 4. Argon

Q.15 Consider the following statements with regard to Satnami Movement of Central India. a) The movement was founded by Ghasidas. b) The movement was to improve the condition of leather workers. Which of the above statements is/are correct? Ans 1. Neither a or b 2. Both a and b 3. Only b 4. Only a

Q.16 Coulomb’s law is applicable for _________. Ans 1. Between two distributed charges  2. Between two point charges 3. both distributed charges and point charges 4. neither point charges nor distributed charges

Q.17 Where is the head office of the Sports Authority of India located? Ans 1. Kerala 2. Punjab 3. Kolkata 4. New Delhi

Q.18 According to the Census 2011, which group of seven sister states has the highest literacy rate? Ans 1. Mizoram and Tripura 2. Manipur and Nagaland 3. Mizoram and Meghalaya 4. Tripura and Arunachal Pradesh

Q.19 In December 2022, who became the first woman President of the Indian Olympic Association? Ans 1. Mary Kom 2. Sakshi Malik 3. PT Usha 4. PV Sindhu

Q.20 The Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR) has classified the Indian soil into _____ categories as per the United States Department of Agriculture (the USDA) Soil Taxonomy? Ans 1. 9 2. 8 3. 7 4. 12

Q.21 Interspecific interaction between two species, in which both members benefit, is referred to as: Ans 1. commensalism 2. uniquely 3. mutualism 4. neutralism

Q.22 Which of the following country hosted the One Day International Cricket World Cup in 2023? Ans 1. Pakistan 2. Australia 3. India 4. England

Q.23 The Mahabodhi Temple was built entirely from ________ by Ashoka. Ans 1. bricks 2. stones 3. rocks 4. wood

Q.24 ‘Raga Mala’ is an autobiography of who among the following musicians? Ans 1. Amjad Ali Khan 2. A R Rahman 3. Ravi Shankar 4. Lata Mangeshkar

Q.25 ________ is a game between two teams, each usually having six players, who wear skates and compete on an ice rink. Ans 1. Ringette 2. Rinkball 3. Ice hockey 4. Ice skating

Q.26 Which of the following folk dances is performed by the fisherfolk of the Mithila region in Bihar? Ans 1. Karma 2. Kamala 3. Nrityakali 4. Jiya

Q.27 Which of the following is classified as an autotrophic organism? Ans 1. Human 2. Plant 3. Animal 4. Fungi

Q.28 Which of the following options represents only the units of energy? Ans 1. Joule, Newton, Kilowatt hour 2. Calorie, Kilowatt hour, Newton 3. Joule, Calorie, Newton 4. Joule, Calorie, Kilowatt hour

Q.29 To study the buildings and structures of the Harappan civilisation, a teacher should take his students on a field trip to which of the following states of India? Ans 1. Sikkim and Tripura 2. Tamil Nadu and Andhra Pradesh 3. Gujrat and Rajasthan 4. Bengal and Odisha

Q.30 Which of the following Indian classical musicians is also known as Sarod Maestro? Ans 1. Asad Ali Khan 2. Amjad Ali Khan 3. Bismillah Khan 4. RV Raghavan

Q.31 The amount of Cash Reserves that commercial banks are required to keep with the RBI is referred to as: Ans 1. Bank Rate 2. CRR 3. SLR 4. Repo Rate

Q.32 Choose the correct statement. Ans 1. Animals are autotrophs. 2. Autotrophs' survival depends directly on heterotrophs. 3. All bacteria are autotrophs. 4. Heterotrophs' survival depends directly or indirectly on autotrophs.

Q.33 Dr. Jayanthi Kumaresh is famous for playing the ________. Ans 1. Saraswati Veena  2. Harmonium  3. Ghatam  4. Mridangam

Q.34 North Indian architecture is called: Ans 1. Nagara style 2. Dravidian style 3. Roman-Greek style 4. Indo-Saracenic style

Q.35 Cotton is used in making clothes. In this example, cotton is which type of good? Ans 1. Inferior 2. Giffen 3. Intermediate 4. Capital

Q.36 Select the CORRECT combination of novelist and their works. Ans 1. The Chess Master and His Moves – RK Narayan 2. Two Leaves and a Bud – Mulk Raj Anand 3. The Cat and Shakespeare – Ravindranath Tagore 4. Waiting for Mahatma – Raja Rao

Q.37 Where was the first Headquarters of the Theosophical Society established in India? Ans 1. Madurai 2. Kolkata 3. Adyar 4. Puducherry

Q.38 The first edition of Indian Women’s Premier League (cricket) was held in the year _________. Ans 1. 2023 2. 2022 3. 2021 4. 2000

Q.39 During the Green Revolution period in India, child nutrition-focused scheme, the Integrated Child Development Scheme (ICDS) was launched in ________. Ans 1. 1976 2. 1975 3. 1977 4. 1972

Q.40 The Malabar Coast is located in which of the following States of India? Ans 1. Gujarat 2. Kerala 3. Maharashtra 4. Odisha

Q.41 Under Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana, the maximum premium payable by the farmers will be _________ for rabi crops. Ans 1. 4.5% 2. 3% 3. 1.5% 4. 6%

Q.42 Who among the following is the author of ‘The God of Small Things’? Ans 1. Arundhati Roy 2. Chitra Banerjee Divakaruni 3. Anita Desai 4. Vikram Seth

Q.43 Which Article of the Indian Constitution gives equality before the law? Ans 1. Article 18 2. Article 16 3. Article 14 4. Article 20

Q.44 The 44th Chess Olympiad was organised in which of the following cities? Ans 1. Bhopal 2. Ahmedabad 3. Chennai 4. Mumbai

Q.45 The festival of flowers, predominantly celebrated in Telangana, is also known as _________. Ans 1. Phulaich 2. Kajari 3. Phool Dei 4. Bathukamma

Q.46 According to the Census of India 2011, which state has the highest number of slum population? Ans 1. Andhra Pradesh 2. Rajasthan 3. Uttar Pradesh 4. Maharashtra

Q.47 Which of the following edicts of King Ashoka describes the Kalinga war? Ans 1. Pillar edict IV 2. Rock edict II 3. Pillar edict III 4. Rock edict XIII

Q.48 Choose the correct statement regarding the bacterial cell wall. Ans 1. Chitin is the major component of the bacterial cell wall. 2. The major component of the bacterial cell wall is cellulose. 3. The major component of the bacterial cell wall is peptidoglycan or murein. 4. Pectin is the major component of the bacterial cell wall.

Q.49 Which of the following commissions does NOT safeguard the interests of any caste or community? Ans 1. National Commission for Backward Classes 2. National Commission for Scheduled Tribes 3. Finance Commission of India 4. National Commission for Scheduled Castes

Q.50 Which of the following is NOT a National Waterway of the country? Ans 1. National Waterway No. 2 2. National Waterway No. 6 3. National Waterway No. 4 4. National Waterway No. 1

Section : English Language and Comprehension

Q.1 Sentences of a paragraph are given below in jumbled order. Select the option that arranges the sentences in the correct order to form a meaningful and coherent paragraph. A. Before we could react or comprehend, the waters had wiped out all the shanties on the beach. B. The word ‘tsunami’ sends shivers down my spine. C. Suddenly, on a bright afternoon I noticed a lot of waves grow bigger and splash quickly. D. I still remember my vacation in Thailand the day the tsunami struck. Ans 1. C, D, A, B 2. B, D, C, A 3. D, A, B, C 4. A, B, C, D

Q.2 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank. If you are going to keep eating those cookies, you are going to ________ your dinner. Ans 1. mute 2. miss 3. allow 4. cheer

Q.3 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in direct speech. He ordered his soldiers to take that bird away. Its gilded cage reminded him of his father whom he had imprisoned. Ans 1. He said to his soldiers, “Take the bird away. Its gilded cage reminded him of his father whom I imprison.”  2. He said to his soldiers, “May this bird be taken away. Its gilded cage reminds me of my father whom I imprisoned.” 3. He said to his soldiers, “Take this bird away. Its gilded cage reminded me of my father whom I imprison.”   4. He said to his soldiers, “Take this bird away. Its gilded cage reminds me of my father whom I imprisoned.”

Q.4 Sentences of a paragraph are given below in jumbled order. Arrange the sentences in the correct order to form a meaningful and coherent paragraph. A. Telugu movie industry is proud of many great producers, directors, artists and musicians. B. Savithri was one such great artist who influenced Telegu movie industry single-handedly for many years. C. Her initial interest was in dance so she learnt dance before entering movies. D. She is still worshipped for her matchless expressions and dialogue delivery. Ans 1. CDAB 2. BCDA 3. ACDB 4. ABCD

Q.5 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the underlined word. She made a courageous decision to quit her job. Ans 1. obstinate 2. myopic 3. coward 4. calm

Q.6 Identify the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word. Fathomable Ans 1. Incoherent 2. Incite 3. Inartistic 4. Inauspicious

Q.7 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom. Diamond in the rough Ans 1. Unpolished diamonds  2. An unsophisticated person with potential 3. An industry of star-struck actors 4. A top model

Q.8 Select the most appropriate adverb to fill in the blank. He is good _________ for the job. Ans 1. partly 2. altogether 3. rather 4. enough

Q.9 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error. In the next few months, / they will / have teach / hundreds of children. Ans 1. In the next few months, 2. they will  3. hundreds of children 4. have teach

Q.10 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom. Weal and woe Ans 1. Simplicity and complexity 2. Early and late  3. Joy and sorrow  4. Hot and cold

Q.11 Select the option that will improve the underlined part of the given sentence. I know a person who parents live in Milan. Ans 1. which parents 2. whose parents 3. whom parents 4. what parents

Q.12 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in indirect speech. He said, “Shall I ever reach my destination?” Ans 1. He wondered if he would ever reach his destination.  2. He said he shall never reach his destination.  3. He said I shall never reach his destination.  4. He said to me I shall never reach my destination.

Q.13 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom. Your guess is as good as mine Ans 1. To be superstitious 2. To have no idea of the answer 3. To predict a disaster 4. To guess an incredible idea

Q.14 Select the most appropriate synonym of the underlined word. The lockdown during Covid-19 in certain places has imposed threatening constraints on market economy and it will take time to recover from this. Ans 1. Faiths  2. Restrictions 3. Beliefs  4. Problems

Q.15 Select the phrase/idiom that will improve the underlined part of the given sentence. Our defence minister has shown his silver will by introducing this scheme. Ans 1. golden will 2. stony will 3. diamond will 4. iron will

Q.16 The given sentence is divided into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error. If we / were meeting at 6 p.m., / we will / have plenty of time. Ans 1. were meeting at 6 p.m.,  2. we will   3. If we 4. have plenty of time.

Q.17 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank. Although one’s body language is a very powerful medium of expression, we express our thoughts, verbally or _________ through language, which is our main way of communication. Ans 1. banefully 2. hyperbolically 3. anemically 4. textually

Q.18 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error. The compensation that the [A] / Government agreed to provide to [B] / the dependents of the [C] / train accident is fairly less [D]. Ans 1. A 2. B 3. C 4. D

Q.19 Select the option that correctly expresses the following sentence in direct speech. She told me that she had already finished the project. Ans 1. She said, “She will have finished the project.” 2. She told me, “ He had already finished the project.” 3. She said to her, “I already finished the project.” 4. She said to me, “I have already finished the project.”

Q.20 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in active voice. Was your bicycle stolen by him? Ans 1. Has he stolen your bicycle? 2. Was he stealing your bicycle? 3. Had he stolen your bicycle? 4. Did he steal your bicycle?

Q.21 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank. You can tell yourself that you would be willing to lose everything you have in order to get something you want: all of those things you’re willing to lose are what make you___________. Ans 1. pessimist 2. distract 3. unfortunately 4. recognisable

Q.22 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank. The difference between a male and a female still __________ in our society. In this era where women have such great achievements in every field, still in some sections of our community, a man is always termed as superior to women. Ans 1. requires 2. persists 3. insists 4. defects

Q.23 Select the most appropriate synonym for the given word. Recumbent Ans 1. Upright 2. Upstanding 3. Prostrate 4. Review

Q.24 Sentences of a paragraph—labelled A, B, C, D—are given below in jumbled order. Select the option that arranges the sentences in the correct logical order to form a meaningful and coherent paragraph. A.The Booker is awarded on 17 October, which also happens to be Garner’s 88th birthday, a coincidence that itself feels a little magical. B.‘If the rocks, caves, lakes, fens, bogs and dens of the land of Britain had a voice, it would sound like Alan Garner telling a story.’ C.This year Alan Garner became the oldest author ever to be shortlisted for the Booker Prize for his small but mighty novel Treacle Walker. D.Treacle Walker, a dreamlike fable of a convalescent boy named Joseph, a rag-and-bone man and a bog-dwelling spirit is at once a characteristically cryptic tale of a child threatened by dark forces, a meditation on time and mortality and a vivid example of folk horror. Ans 1. C, A, D, B 2. A, D, B, C 3. B, D, A, C 4. D, A, C, B

Q.25 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in passive voice. The secretary has planted a lot of saplings to save the environment. Ans 1. A lot of saplings have been planted by the secretary to save the environment.  2. A lot of saplings are being planted by the secretary to save the environment.   3. A lot of saplings were planted by the secretary to save the environment.   4. A lot of saplings are planted by the secretary to save the environment.

Q.26 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in passive voice. Who has told you to buy trash from the market? Ans 1. Who could tell you to buy trash? 2. By whom have you been told to buy trash? 3. By whom had you been told to buy trash? 4. The buying of trash has been told by whom?

Q.27 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the underlined word in the given sentence. His was a stupendous performance in the competition. Ans 1. Herculean 2. Soothing 3. Mnemonic 4. Unimpressive

Q.28 Identify the error in the following sentence. Once on a time, there was a brave king. Ans 1. brave 2. on 3. once 4. was

Q.29 Parts of the following sentence have been underlined and given as options. Select the option that contains an error. I stayed in my hometown with my parents on the pandemic. Ans 1. I 2. in 3. with 4. on

Q.30 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in passive form. The shopkeeper lifted the shutter to open his shop. Ans 1. To open his shop, the shutter is lifted by the shopkeeper. 2. The shutter was lifted by the shopkeeper to open his shop. 3. The shutter is being lifted by the shopkeeper to open his shop. 4. The shutter will be lifted by the shopkeeper to open his shop.

Q.31 Sentences of a paragraph are given below in jumbled order. Select the most logical sequence of sentences from the options to construct a meaningful and cohesive paragraph. a. Researchers from five medical centres around the country found that insomniacs were also significantly likely to have poor health, such as chest pain, arthritis, and depression, as well as difficulties doing daily duties. b. Even temporary sleep loss can disrupt the body's capacity to break down carbohydrates, interfere with hormones, and aggravate diabetes and high blood pressure. c. So, make time for whatever helps you sleep, whether it's exercise, massages, yoga, meditation, or a fragrance bath. d. Sleep deprivation has frightening consequences for many biological processes. Ans 1. d, c, a, b 2. d, a, c, b 3. d, a, b, c 4. d, c, b, a

Q.32 Select the most appropriate form and tense of the bracketed verb in the following sentence to fill in the blank. I’m busy today. I’d rather we ________ (has) the meeting tomorrow. Ans 1. had been 2. had  3. Has been   4. has

Q.33 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank. The Great wall of China was built to link existing fortifications into a united __________ system and to keep the invading Mongol tribes out of China. Ans 1. corporate 2. defence   3. irrigation 4. ecological

Q.34 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word. Exaggerate Ans 1. Embellish 2. Neglect 3. Emphasise 4. Understate

Q.35 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in direct speech. He asked me affectionately what he could do for me. Ans 1. He said to me, “What can be done for me?” 2. He said to me, “What can I do for you, dear?” 3. He said to me, “What should be done for you?” 4. He said to me, “What could he do?”

Q.36 The following sentence has been divided into parts. One of them may contain an error. Select the part that contains the error from the given options. If you don’t find any error, select ‘No error’ as your answer. (a) The Gita/ (b) is most sacred book/ (c) of the Hindus. / (d) No error Ans 1. a  2. b 3. d 4. c

Q.37 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in indirect speech. "Dear daughter," she said caressing her cheeks, “have you come to comfort me in my time of need?” Ans 1. Caressing her daughter’s cheeks, she said affectionately if she had been coming to comfort her in her time of need. 2. Caressing her daughter’s cheeks, she said affectionately if she has come to comfort her in her time of need. 3. Caressing her daughter’s cheeks, she asked affectionately if she did come to comfort her in her time of need. 4. Caressing her daughter’s cheeks, she asked affectionately if she had come to comfort her in her time of need.

Q.38 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the bracketed word in the following sentence to fill in the blank. The patient consumed mushrooms for hallucinatory experiences, but the doctor advised to consume only ________(hallucinogenic) drugs. Ans 1. regular 2. psychedelic 3. abnormal 4. freaky

Q.39 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the underlined word. This narrow lane will take you to your destination. Ans 1. straight 2. slender 3. broad 4. mild

Q.40 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in passive voice. The interference of the police force would have controlled the situation. Ans 1. The situation would be controlled by the interference of the police force. 2. The situation could have been controlled by the interference of the police force. 3. The situation would have been controlled by the interference of the police force. 4. The situation could be controlled by the interference of the police force.

Q.41 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error. I have thought at / what you said / and I’ve decided / to take your advice. Ans 1. I have thought at 2. what you said 3. to take your advice 4. and I’ve decided

Q.42 Select the option that expresses the following sentence in direct speech. He told me that he would have finished the project by the following day. Ans 1. “I would finish the project,” he said to me tomorrow. 2. “I have finished the project by tomorrow,” he said to me. 3. “I will finish the project by the next day,” he said to me. 4. “I will have finished the project by tomorrow,” he said to me.

Q.43 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. My mom made her muffins, but she didn’t eat none. Ans 1. she didn’t eat any   2. she didn’t ate any  3. she did eat none  4. she did ate many

Q.44 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom. Loose cannon Ans 1. Someone who is quiet and reserved in social situations 2. Someone who is well known and respected in society 3. Someone who is unpredictable and liable to cause problems 4. Someone who is enthusiastic and very eager to take responsibilities

Q.45 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in active voice. This saree was bought by my son on the occasion of my birthday. Ans 1. My son bought this saree on the occasion of my birthday. 2. My son had bought this saree on the occasion of my birthday. 3. My son has bought this saree on the occasion of my birthday. 4. My son has bought the saree on the occasion of my birthday.

Q.46 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in active voice. Let the door be closed. Ans 1. The door is closed. 2. Close the door.  3. Please let him close the door. 4. The door will be closed.

Q.47 Identify the error in the given sentence and select the option that correctly rectifies the error. The day is longer than year on Venus. Ans 1. A day is longer than the year on Venus. 2. A day is longer than a year on Venus. 3. Day is longer than the year on Venus. 4. All day is longer than a year on Venus.

Q.48 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in passive voice. Were you laughing at the poor masses? Ans 1. Are the poor masses being laughed at by you? 2. Have the poor masses been laughed at by you? 3. Were the poor masses being laughed at by you? 4. Had the masses been laughed at by you?

Q.49 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error. The rain will / not have stop / before the match / begins. Ans 1. not have stop  2. before the match 3. The rain will  4. begins

Q.50 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in passive voice. We have reorganised the department over the last year. Ans 1. The department is reorganised by me.  2. The department has been reorganised over the last year.  3. The department is being reorganised over the last year.  4. Last year, the department was reorganised.

Q.51 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error. In August, she will be / enjoying / all the fruits her grandmother / will plant last January. Ans 1. all the fruits her grandmother   2. will plant last January  3. In August, she will be   4. enjoying

Q.52 Sentences of a paragraph are given below in jumbled order. Arrange the sentences in the correct order to form a meaningful and coherent paragraph. (A) I must tell you that I am referring to the tax year which began on 1 April (B) Let me be the first to wish you a very happy New Year (C) In case none of your friends or family did so (D) Now, before you ask whether the spring sunshine has gone to my head Ans 1. CBDA 2. DBAC 3. ADCB 4. BACD

Q.53 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word. Taciturnity Ans 1. Eloquence 2. Silence  3. Tactic 4. Talkative

Q.54 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in passive voice. They will have to pull down this building as they have not complied with the building regulations of the city. Ans 1. This building will have to be pulled down by them as the building regulations of the city have not been complied with.  2. This building will be pulled down as the building regulations of the city have not been complied with by them. 3. This building is to be pulled down by them as the building regulations of the city have not been complied with by them.  4. This building needs to be pulled down by them as the building regulations of the city have not been complied with.

Q.55 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the underlined word in the given sentence. The team’s performance was at its zenith in 2017. Ans 1. Nadir  2. Height 3. Sneak 4. Peak

Q.56 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank. One should keep _________ surroundings neat and tidy. Ans 1. ones 2. there's 3.  there 4. one’s

Q.57 Select the alternative from the given options that best expresses the same sentence in active/passive voice. Who built this colossal architectural structure? Ans 1. Who had this colossal architectural structure built? 2. By whom is this colossal architectural structure built? 3. By whom has this colossal architectural structure been built ? 4. By whom was this colossal architectural structure built?

Q.58 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in direct speech. Ravi said that he might go to the mall. Ans 1. Ravi said, “I will go to the mall.” 2. Ravi said, “I may go to the mall.” 3. Ravi said, “I could go to the mall.” 4. Ravi said, “I can go to the mall.”

Q.59 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in reported speech. Koushik said to Tarun, “You are a good cricketer.” Ans 1. Koushik tells Tarun that he is a good cricketer. 2. Koushik told that Tarun is a good cricketer.  3. Koushik told Tarun that he had been a good cricketer.  4. Koushik told Tarun that he was a good cricketer.

Q.60 Select the correct alternative from the given options that correctly changes the form of narration in the given sentence. The Headmistress said, “What a performance!” Ans 1. The Headmistress praised what a great performance. 2. The Headmistress exclaimed what a great performance. 3. The Headmistress exclaimed that it was a great performance. 4. The Headmistress said that what a performance.

Q.61 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in indirect speech. Jatin said, “I was at home yesterday.” Ans 1. Jatin said he was at home. 2. Jatin said he was at home the day before. 3. Jatin said that he was at home yesterday. 4. Jatin said that he had been at home the day before.

Q.62 The given sentence is divided into four segments. Select the option that has the segment with a grammatical error. When I saw / her, she write / a poem / with full attention. Ans 1. with full attention.  2. when I saw 3. her, she write 4. a poem

Q.63 Select the most appropriate option that expresses the given sentence in direct speech. Sakshi said that she would do it then or never. Ans 1. Sakshi said, “I would do it then or never.” 2. Sakshi said, “I have to do it now or never.” 3. Sakshi said, “I will do it now or never.” 4. Sakshi said, “I will do it then or never.”

Q.64 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in direct speech. The doctor advised me to take bed rest and eat nutritious food. Ans 1. The doctor said to me, “You take bed rest and eat nutritious food.” 2. The doctor said to me, “I take bed rest and eat nutritious food.” 3. The doctor told me, “I should take bed rest and eat nutritious food.” 4. The doctor said to me, “Take bed rest and eat nutritious food.”

Q.65 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank. For no ___________ reason, the train suddenly stopped, and the passengers went into a state of panic. Ans 1. florid 2. gaudy 3. taken 4. apparent

Q.66 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom. A bird's eye view Ans 1. A clear impression of what is happening  2. To move or rise into sight, especially from a distance 3. A limited understanding of something 4. To hold a negative or pessimistic opinion on something

Q.67 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word. Inclusion Ans 1. Omission  2. Boost 3. Gain 4. Accrual

Q.68 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank. Venus didn’t have any moons or satellites or even a ___________ field, but it did have an atmosphere sort of similar to Earth’s, except it was super-hot. Ans 1. graphological 2. pedagogic 3. magnetic  4. musicological

Q.69 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains an error. One of the great rivers / of China, a Hwang Ho, / originates from the / eastern face of Tibet. Ans 1. One of the great rivers 2. originates from the 3. of China, a Hwang Ho, 4. eastern face of Tibet

Q.70 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in passive voice. Suma is making tea. Ans 1. Tea has been made by Suma. 2. Tea is being made by Suma. 3. Tea was being made by Suma. 4. Tea was made by Suma.

Comprehension: In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in each blank. The Kodagu district administration ________ (1) planned a Honey Festival in the gardens of Raja Seat in Madikeri on 24 and 25 December. The festival, which has been planned in association with Kodagu Zilla Panchayat and Horticulture Department, _____ (2) aimed at encouraging _______ (3) in Kodagu in view of the worldwide demand for Coorg honey. The festival is _________ (4) to bring together not only people engaged in apiculture, but also scientists, societies and companies _________ (5) in producing honey. SubQuestion No : 71 Q.71 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1. Ans 1. had 2. has been 3. has 4. have

Comprehension: In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in each blank. The Kodagu district administration ________ (1) planned a Honey Festival in the gardens of Raja Seat in Madikeri on 24 and 25 December. The festival, which has been planned in association with Kodagu Zilla Panchayat and Horticulture Department, _____ (2) aimed at encouraging _______ (3) in Kodagu in view of the worldwide demand for Coorg honey. The festival is _________ (4) to bring together not only people engaged in apiculture, but also scientists, societies and companies _________ (5) in producing honey. SubQuestion No : 72 Q.72 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2. Ans 1. is 2. was 3. have 4. had

Comprehension: In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in each blank. The Kodagu district administration ________ (1) planned a Honey Festival in the gardens of Raja Seat in Madikeri on 24 and 25 December. The festival, which has been planned in association with Kodagu Zilla Panchayat and Horticulture Department, _____ (2) aimed at encouraging _______ (3) in Kodagu in view of the worldwide demand for Coorg honey. The festival is _________ (4) to bring together not only people engaged in apiculture, but also scientists, societies and companies _________ (5) in producing honey. SubQuestion No : 73 Q.73 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3. Ans 1. horticulture 2. apiculture 3. sericulture  4. agriculture

Comprehension: In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in each blank. The Kodagu district administration ________ (1) planned a Honey Festival in the gardens of Raja Seat in Madikeri on 24 and 25 December. The festival, which has been planned in association with Kodagu Zilla Panchayat and Horticulture Department, _____ (2) aimed at encouraging _______ (3) in Kodagu in view of the worldwide demand for Coorg honey. The festival is _________ (4) to bring together not only people engaged in apiculture, but also scientists, societies and companies _________ (5) in producing honey. SubQuestion No : 74 Q.74 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4. Ans 1. expected 2. accepted 3. sophisticated 4. excepted

Comprehension: In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in each blank. The Kodagu district administration ________ (1) planned a Honey Festival in the gardens of Raja Seat in Madikeri on 24 and 25 December. The festival, which has been planned in association with Kodagu Zilla Panchayat and Horticulture Department, _____ (2) aimed at encouraging _______ (3) in Kodagu in view of the worldwide demand for Coorg honey. The festival is _________ (4) to bring together not only people engaged in apiculture, but also scientists, societies and companies _________ (5) in producing honey. SubQuestion No : 75 Q.75 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 5. Ans 1. engaged 2. related 3. captivated 4. engrossed

Comprehension: In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in each blank. In its basic form, nursing can be seen as a duty, but beyond the (1)_________ operational activities that lay the (2)___________ of our daily work, the profession is all about grace. Helping people is a (3)_________ calling. It is a privilege to serve my fellow human beings. Fifteen years has seen many ups and downs at the workplace, but I have enjoyed (4)____________ the many patients who come into my care, and have prayed for the souls of those who were on the (5)____________ of death. SubQuestion No : 76 Q.76 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1. Ans 1. inadvertent 2. robust 3. transparent 4. incessant

Comprehension: In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in each blank. In its basic form, nursing can be seen as a duty, but beyond the (1)_________ operational activities that lay the (2)___________ of our daily work, the profession is all about grace. Helping people is a (3)_________ calling. It is a privilege to serve my fellow human beings. Fifteen years has seen many ups and downs at the workplace, but I have enjoyed (4)____________ the many patients who come into my care, and have prayed for the souls of those who were on the (5)____________ of death. SubQuestion No : 77 Q.77 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2. Ans 1. foundation 2. pleasing 3. delicacy 4. placement

Comprehension: In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in each blank. In its basic form, nursing can be seen as a duty, but beyond the (1)_________ operational activities that lay the (2)___________ of our daily work, the profession is all about grace. Helping people is a (3)_________ calling. It is a privilege to serve my fellow human beings. Fifteen years has seen many ups and downs at the workplace, but I have enjoyed (4)____________ the many patients who come into my care, and have prayed for the souls of those who were on the (5)____________ of death. SubQuestion No : 78 Q.78 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3. Ans 1. Diffident 2. Corrosive 3. Noble 4. problematic

Comprehension: In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in each blank. In its basic form, nursing can be seen as a duty, but beyond the (1)_________ operational activities that lay the (2)___________ of our daily work, the profession is all about grace. Helping people is a (3)_________ calling. It is a privilege to serve my fellow human beings. Fifteen years has seen many ups and downs at the workplace, but I have enjoyed (4)____________ the many patients who come into my care, and have prayed for the souls of those who were on the (5)____________ of death. SubQuestion No : 79 Q.79 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4. Ans 1. Serving 2. Hosting 3. Deceiving 4. preventing

Comprehension: In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in each blank. In its basic form, nursing can be seen as a duty, but beyond the (1)_________ operational activities that lay the (2)___________ of our daily work, the profession is all about grace. Helping people is a (3)_________ calling. It is a privilege to serve my fellow human beings. Fifteen years has seen many ups and downs at the workplace, but I have enjoyed (4)____________ the many patients who come into my care, and have prayed for the souls of those who were on the (5)____________ of death. SubQuestion No : 80 Q.80 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 5. Ans 1. longevity 2. allowance 3. brink 4. leverage

Comprehension: In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in each blank. The modern-day world is full of psychological disorders, (1)____ health, mental tension, and many more problems. Likewise, the life of some people is like a mad rush from one work to another without any (2)____. Besides, there are very few people in the world that care about their health more than their work or daily tasks. But there are ways by which we can restore our health fully and morning walk is one of them. It can reduce the amount of health disorders and (3)____ the physical shape and state of the body, which protects us from many diseases. Besides, morning walk gives you energy, motivates you to avoid laziness, creates a positive mindset, it is good for your organs especially the heart, and it gives you time to (4)_____ your day. To sum it up, we can say that, morning walk is very important for the body. Also, it helps to keep the body and mind healthy. Besides, everyone, (5)____ kids or elders should try to make morning walk a part of their daily routine. SubQuestion No : 81 Q.81 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1. Ans 1. good 2. poor 3. best 4. strong

Comprehension: In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in each blank. The modern-day world is full of psychological disorders, (1)____ health, mental tension, and many more problems. Likewise, the life of some people is like a mad rush from one work to another without any (2)____. Besides, there are very few people in the world that care about their health more than their work or daily tasks. But there are ways by which we can restore our health fully and morning walk is one of them. It can reduce the amount of health disorders and (3)____ the physical shape and state of the body, which protects us from many diseases. Besides, morning walk gives you energy, motivates you to avoid laziness, creates a positive mindset, it is good for your organs especially the heart, and it gives you time to (4)_____ your day. To sum it up, we can say that, morning walk is very important for the body. Also, it helps to keep the body and mind healthy. Besides, everyone, (5)____ kids or elders should try to make morning walk a part of their daily routine. SubQuestion No : 82 Q.82 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2. Ans 1. fulfilling 2. stress 3. urgent 4. break

Comprehension: In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in each blank. The modern-day world is full of psychological disorders, (1)____ health, mental tension, and many more problems. Likewise, the life of some people is like a mad rush from one work to another without any (2)____. Besides, there are very few people in the world that care about their health more than their work or daily tasks. But there are ways by which we can restore our health fully and morning walk is one of them. It can reduce the amount of health disorders and (3)____ the physical shape and state of the body, which protects us from many diseases. Besides, morning walk gives you energy, motivates you to avoid laziness, creates a positive mindset, it is good for your organs especially the heart, and it gives you time to (4)_____ your day. To sum it up, we can say that, morning walk is very important for the body. Also, it helps to keep the body and mind healthy. Besides, everyone, (5)____ kids or elders should try to make morning walk a part of their daily routine. SubQuestion No : 83 Q.83 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3. Ans 1. control 2. deteriorate 3. improve 4. ruin

Comprehension: In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in each blank. The modern-day world is full of psychological disorders, (1)____ health, mental tension, and many more problems. Likewise, the life of some people is like a mad rush from one work to another without any (2)____. Besides, there are very few people in the world that care about their health more than their work or daily tasks. But there are ways by which we can restore our health fully and morning walk is one of them. It can reduce the amount of health disorders and (3)____ the physical shape and state of the body, which protects us from many diseases. Besides, morning walk gives you energy, motivates you to avoid laziness, creates a positive mindset, it is good for your organs especially the heart, and it gives you time to (4)_____ your day. To sum it up, we can say that, morning walk is very important for the body. Also, it helps to keep the body and mind healthy. Besides, everyone, (5)____ kids or elders should try to make morning walk a part of their daily routine. SubQuestion No : 84 Q.84 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4. Ans 1. plan 2. forget 3. ruin 4. break

Comprehension: In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in each blank. The modern-day world is full of psychological disorders, (1)____ health, mental tension, and many more problems. Likewise, the life of some people is like a mad rush from one work to another without any (2)____. Besides, there are very few people in the world that care about their health more than their work or daily tasks. But there are ways by which we can restore our health fully and morning walk is one of them. It can reduce the amount of health disorders and (3)____ the physical shape and state of the body, which protects us from many diseases. Besides, morning walk gives you energy, motivates you to avoid laziness, creates a positive mindset, it is good for your organs especially the heart, and it gives you time to (4)_____ your day. To sum it up, we can say that, morning walk is very important for the body. Also, it helps to keep the body and mind healthy. Besides, everyone, (5)____ kids or elders should try to make morning walk a part of their daily routine. SubQuestion No : 85 Q.85 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 5. Ans 1. some 2. whether 3. neither 4. either

Comprehension: In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. Select the most appropriate option for each blank. She was, I think, a good woman – and she had him sent (1)_______. When her husband died, she (2)_________ the truth. And so, to save the man she loved, she tried to destroy the (3)________ against him. Later, I think, he (4)_________ her that her suspicions were (5)_________, and she consented to marry him. SubQuestion No : 86 Q.86 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no. 1. Ans 1. away 2. by 3. on 4. through

Comprehension: In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. Select the most appropriate option for each blank. She was, I think, a good woman – and she had him sent (1)_______. When her husband died, she (2)_________ the truth. And so, to save the man she loved, she tried to destroy the (3)________ against him. Later, I think, he (4)_________ her that her suspicions were (5)_________, and she consented to marry him. SubQuestion No : 87 Q.87 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no. 2. Ans 1. smuggled 2. debited 3. filed 4. suspected

Comprehension: In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. Select the most appropriate option for each blank. She was, I think, a good woman – and she had him sent (1)_______. When her husband died, she (2)_________ the truth. And so, to save the man she loved, she tried to destroy the (3)________ against him. Later, I think, he (4)_________ her that her suspicions were (5)_________, and she consented to marry him. SubQuestion No : 88 Q.88 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no. 3. Ans 1. crime 2. evidence 3. opportunity 4. time

Comprehension: In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. Select the most appropriate option for each blank. She was, I think, a good woman – and she had him sent (1)_______. When her husband died, she (2)_________ the truth. And so, to save the man she loved, she tried to destroy the (3)________ against him. Later, I think, he (4)_________ her that her suspicions were (5)_________, and she consented to marry him. SubQuestion No : 89 Q.89 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no. 4. Ans 1. pondered 2. persuaded 3. guessed 4. killed

Comprehension: In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. Select the most appropriate option for each blank. She was, I think, a good woman – and she had him sent (1)_______. When her husband died, she (2)_________ the truth. And so, to save the man she loved, she tried to destroy the (3)________ against him. Later, I think, he (4)_________ her that her suspicions were (5)_________, and she consented to marry him. SubQuestion No : 90 Q.90 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no. 5. Ans 1. concrete 2. unfounded 3. facts 4. true

Comprehension: Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow. The process of photosynthesis is one of the most important biological processes on Earth. It is the way that plants, algae, and some types of bacteria convert energy from the sun into chemical energy in the form of organic compounds. These organic compounds, such as sugars, are then used by the organism as a source of energy and as building blocks for growth and reproduction. The basic process of photosynthesis can be broken down into two main stages: the light-dependent reactions and the light-independent reactions (also known as the Calvin cycle). In the light-dependent reactions, energy from sunlight is absorbed by pigments in the chloroplasts of plant cells, and is used to convert water into oxygen and high-energy electrons. These electrons are then used to power the synthesis of ATP and NADPH, which are energy-rich molecules that are used in the light-independent reactions. In the light-independent reactions, the energy from ATP and NADPH is used to fix carbon dioxide into organic compounds, such as glucose. This process is known as carbon fixation and is mediated by a series of enzymes called the Calvin cycle. These reactions take place in the stroma of the chloroplasts, and the end result is the production of glucose and other sugars. Photosynthesis is not only important for the survival of plants, but also for all other organisms that depend on plants as a source of food. In addition, the oxygen produced during photosynthesis is crucial for the survival of animals and other organisms that require oxygen for respiration. Without the process of photosynthesis, the Earth’s atmosphere would not contain the high levels of oxygen that are necessary for most forms of life to survive. Overall, photosynthesis is a vital process that plays a critical role in the Earth’s ecosystem, providing the energy and organic compounds needed for the growth and survival of all forms of life. SubQuestion No : 91 Q.91 Identify the tone of the passage. Ans 1. Informative and neutral 2. Informal and personal 3. Assertive and passive   4. Inquisitive and subjective

Comprehension: Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow. The process of photosynthesis is one of the most important biological processes on Earth. It is the way that plants, algae, and some types of bacteria convert energy from the sun into chemical energy in the form of organic compounds. These organic compounds, such as sugars, are then used by the organism as a source of energy and as building blocks for growth and reproduction. The basic process of photosynthesis can be broken down into two main stages: the light-dependent reactions and the light-independent reactions (also known as the Calvin cycle). In the light-dependent reactions, energy from sunlight is absorbed by pigments in the chloroplasts of plant cells, and is used to convert water into oxygen and high-energy electrons. These electrons are then used to power the synthesis of ATP and NADPH, which are energy-rich molecules that are used in the light-independent reactions. In the light-independent reactions, the energy from ATP and NADPH is used to fix carbon dioxide into organic compounds, such as glucose. This process is known as carbon fixation and is mediated by a series of enzymes called the Calvin cycle. These reactions take place in the stroma of the chloroplasts, and the end result is the production of glucose and other sugars. Photosynthesis is not only important for the survival of plants, but also for all other organisms that depend on plants as a source of food. In addition, the oxygen produced during photosynthesis is crucial for the survival of animals and other organisms that require oxygen for respiration. Without the process of photosynthesis, the Earth’s atmosphere would not contain the high levels of oxygen that are necessary for most forms of life to survive. Overall, photosynthesis is a vital process that plays a critical role in the Earth’s ecosystem, providing the energy and organic compounds needed for the growth and survival of all forms of life. SubQuestion No : 92 Q.92 Which of the following is NOT a correct statement about the light-independent reactions of photosynthesis? Ans 1. They are also known as the Calvin cycle.  2. They use energy from ATP and NADPH to produce oxygen.  3. They use energy from ATP and NADPH to produce glucose. 4. They take place in the stroma of the chloroplasts.

Comprehension: Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow. The process of photosynthesis is one of the most important biological processes on Earth. It is the way that plants, algae, and some types of bacteria convert energy from the sun into chemical energy in the form of organic compounds. These organic compounds, such as sugars, are then used by the organism as a source of energy and as building blocks for growth and reproduction. The basic process of photosynthesis can be broken down into two main stages: the light-dependent reactions and the light-independent reactions (also known as the Calvin cycle). In the light-dependent reactions, energy from sunlight is absorbed by pigments in the chloroplasts of plant cells, and is used to convert water into oxygen and high-energy electrons. These electrons are then used to power the synthesis of ATP and NADPH, which are energy-rich molecules that are used in the light-independent reactions. In the light-independent reactions, the energy from ATP and NADPH is used to fix carbon dioxide into organic compounds, such as glucose. This process is known as carbon fixation and is mediated by a series of enzymes called the Calvin cycle. These reactions take place in the stroma of the chloroplasts, and the end result is the production of glucose and other sugars. Photosynthesis is not only important for the survival of plants, but also for all other organisms that depend on plants as a source of food. In addition, the oxygen produced during photosynthesis is crucial for the survival of animals and other organisms that require oxygen for respiration. Without the process of photosynthesis, the Earth’s atmosphere would not contain the high levels of oxygen that are necessary for most forms of life to survive. Overall, photosynthesis is a vital process that plays a critical role in the Earth’s ecosystem, providing the energy and organic compounds needed for the growth and survival of all forms of life. SubQuestion No : 93 Q.93 Identify the structure of the passage. Ans 1. Cause and Effect  2. Introduction, Main Body, Conclusion  3. Problem and Solution  4. Compare and Contrast

Comprehension: Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow. The process of photosynthesis is one of the most important biological processes on Earth. It is the way that plants, algae, and some types of bacteria convert energy from the sun into chemical energy in the form of organic compounds. These organic compounds, such as sugars, are then used by the organism as a source of energy and as building blocks for growth and reproduction. The basic process of photosynthesis can be broken down into two main stages: the light-dependent reactions and the light-independent reactions (also known as the Calvin cycle). In the light-dependent reactions, energy from sunlight is absorbed by pigments in the chloroplasts of plant cells, and is used to convert water into oxygen and high-energy electrons. These electrons are then used to power the synthesis of ATP and NADPH, which are energy-rich molecules that are used in the light-independent reactions. In the light-independent reactions, the energy from ATP and NADPH is used to fix carbon dioxide into organic compounds, such as glucose. This process is known as carbon fixation and is mediated by a series of enzymes called the Calvin cycle. These reactions take place in the stroma of the chloroplasts, and the end result is the production of glucose and other sugars. Photosynthesis is not only important for the survival of plants, but also for all other organisms that depend on plants as a source of food. In addition, the oxygen produced during photosynthesis is crucial for the survival of animals and other organisms that require oxygen for respiration. Without the process of photosynthesis, the Earth’s atmosphere would not contain the high levels of oxygen that are necessary for most forms of life to survive. Overall, photosynthesis is a vital process that plays a critical role in the Earth’s ecosystem, providing the energy and organic compounds needed for the growth and survival of all forms of life. SubQuestion No : 94 Q.94 Which of the following is NOT a correct statement about the light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis? Ans 1. They convert water into oxygen and high-energy electrons. 2. They power the synthesis of ATP and NADPH.  3. The energy from sunlight is absorbed by pigments in the chloroplasts of plant cell. 4. They use energy from sunlight to produce glucose.

Comprehension: Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow. The process of photosynthesis is one of the most important biological processes on Earth. It is the way that plants, algae, and some types of bacteria convert energy from the sun into chemical energy in the form of organic compounds. These organic compounds, such as sugars, are then used by the organism as a source of energy and as building blocks for growth and reproduction. The basic process of photosynthesis can be broken down into two main stages: the light-dependent reactions and the light-independent reactions (also known as the Calvin cycle). In the light-dependent reactions, energy from sunlight is absorbed by pigments in the chloroplasts of plant cells, and is used to convert water into oxygen and high-energy electrons. These electrons are then used to power the synthesis of ATP and NADPH, which are energy-rich molecules that are used in the light-independent reactions. In the light-independent reactions, the energy from ATP and NADPH is used to fix carbon dioxide into organic compounds, such as glucose. This process is known as carbon fixation and is mediated by a series of enzymes called the Calvin cycle. These reactions take place in the stroma of the chloroplasts, and the end result is the production of glucose and other sugars. Photosynthesis is not only important for the survival of plants, but also for all other organisms that depend on plants as a source of food. In addition, the oxygen produced during photosynthesis is crucial for the survival of animals and other organisms that require oxygen for respiration. Without the process of photosynthesis, the Earth’s atmosphere would not contain the high levels of oxygen that are necessary for most forms of life to survive. Overall, photosynthesis is a vital process that plays a critical role in the Earth’s ecosystem, providing the energy and organic compounds needed for the growth and survival of all forms of life. SubQuestion No : 95 Q.95 Select the most appropriate title for the passage. Ans 1. The Calvin Cycle and Carbon Fixation  2. Photosynthesis in Algae and Bacteria 3. The Importance of Photosynthesis in the Earth’s Ecosystem  4. The Role of Pigments in Photosynthesis

Comprehension: Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow. The topic of renewable energy is becoming increasingly important as concerns about climate change and the depletion of non-renewable resources continue to grow. Renewable energy sources, such as solar and wind power, have the potential to provide a clean and sustainable source of power for the world's growing population. One of the major advantages of renewable energy is that it is not limited by the same supply constraints as fossil fuels. Unlike oil, coal, and natural gas, which are finite resources that will eventually run out, renewable energy sources like solar and wind power will never run out. Additionally, renewable energy sources do not produce the greenhouse gases that are responsible for climate change, making them a much more environmentally friendly option. Despite the clear benefits of renewable energy, there are still significant challenges that need to be overcome in order for it to become a viable alternative to fossil fuels. One of the main challenges is the cost of renewable energy, which is currently higher than traditional fossil fuels. However, as technology continues to improve and economies of scale are achieved, the cost of renewable energy is expected to decrease. Another challenge is the need for reliable and efficient energy storage solutions, which are essential for the widespread adoption of renewable energy. Without effective energy storage solutions, renewable energy sources like solar and wind power can only be used when the sun is shining or the wind is blowing, which greatly limits their overall usefulness. Overall, renewable energy has the potential to play a critical role in addressing the world’s energy needs and reducing dependence on fossil fuels. While challenges remain, with continued research and development, renewable energy is likely to become increasingly viable and important in the coming years. SubQuestion No : 96 Q.96 What is the main challenge facing the adoption of renewable energy? Ans 1. Abundance of fossil fuels in the world  2. Cost of renewable energy is currently higher than traditional fossil fuels  3. Lack of skilled labour for the production of renewable energy  4. Insufficient demand for renewable energy

Comprehension: Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow. The topic of renewable energy is becoming increasingly important as concerns about climate change and the depletion of non-renewable resources continue to grow. Renewable energy sources, such as solar and wind power, have the potential to provide a clean and sustainable source of power for the world's growing population. One of the major advantages of renewable energy is that it is not limited by the same supply constraints as fossil fuels. Unlike oil, coal, and natural gas, which are finite resources that will eventually run out, renewable energy sources like solar and wind power will never run out. Additionally, renewable energy sources do not produce the greenhouse gases that are responsible for climate change, making them a much more environmentally friendly option. Despite the clear benefits of renewable energy, there are still significant challenges that need to be overcome in order for it to become a viable alternative to fossil fuels. One of the main challenges is the cost of renewable energy, which is currently higher than traditional fossil fuels. However, as technology continues to improve and economies of scale are achieved, the cost of renewable energy is expected to decrease. Another challenge is the need for reliable and efficient energy storage solutions, which are essential for the widespread adoption of renewable energy. Without effective energy storage solutions, renewable energy sources like solar and wind power can only be used when the sun is shining or the wind is blowing, which greatly limits their overall usefulness. Overall, renewable energy has the potential to play a critical role in addressing the world’s energy needs and reducing dependence on fossil fuels. While challenges remain, with continued research and development, renewable energy is likely to become increasingly viable and important in the coming years. SubQuestion No : 97 Q.97 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word. Viable Ans 1. Indignant 2. Irresolvable 3. Inaccurate 4. Impracticable

Comprehension: Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow. The topic of renewable energy is becoming increasingly important as concerns about climate change and the depletion of non-renewable resources continue to grow. Renewable energy sources, such as solar and wind power, have the potential to provide a clean and sustainable source of power for the world's growing population. One of the major advantages of renewable energy is that it is not limited by the same supply constraints as fossil fuels. Unlike oil, coal, and natural gas, which are finite resources that will eventually run out, renewable energy sources like solar and wind power will never run out. Additionally, renewable energy sources do not produce the greenhouse gases that are responsible for climate change, making them a much more environmentally friendly option. Despite the clear benefits of renewable energy, there are still significant challenges that need to be overcome in order for it to become a viable alternative to fossil fuels. One of the main challenges is the cost of renewable energy, which is currently higher than traditional fossil fuels. However, as technology continues to improve and economies of scale are achieved, the cost of renewable energy is expected to decrease. Another challenge is the need for reliable and efficient energy storage solutions, which are essential for the widespread adoption of renewable energy. Without effective energy storage solutions, renewable energy sources like solar and wind power can only be used when the sun is shining or the wind is blowing, which greatly limits their overall usefulness. Overall, renewable energy has the potential to play a critical role in addressing the world’s energy needs and reducing dependence on fossil fuels. While challenges remain, with continued research and development, renewable energy is likely to become increasingly viable and important in the coming years. SubQuestion No : 98 Q.98 Select the most appropriate title for the passage. Ans 1. The Future of Nuclear Energy 2. The Advantages and Challenges of Renewable Energy 3. The Role of Technology in Energy Production 4. The Environmental Impact of Non-Renewable Energy Sources

Comprehension: Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow. The topic of renewable energy is becoming increasingly important as concerns about climate change and the depletion of non-renewable resources continue to grow. Renewable energy sources, such as solar and wind power, have the potential to provide a clean and sustainable source of power for the world's growing population. One of the major advantages of renewable energy is that it is not limited by the same supply constraints as fossil fuels. Unlike oil, coal, and natural gas, which are finite resources that will eventually run out, renewable energy sources like solar and wind power will never run out. Additionally, renewable energy sources do not produce the greenhouse gases that are responsible for climate change, making them a much more environmentally friendly option. Despite the clear benefits of renewable energy, there are still significant challenges that need to be overcome in order for it to become a viable alternative to fossil fuels. One of the main challenges is the cost of renewable energy, which is currently higher than traditional fossil fuels. However, as technology continues to improve and economies of scale are achieved, the cost of renewable energy is expected to decrease. Another challenge is the need for reliable and efficient energy storage solutions, which are essential for the widespread adoption of renewable energy. Without effective energy storage solutions, renewable energy sources like solar and wind power can only be used when the sun is shining or the wind is blowing, which greatly limits their overall usefulness. Overall, renewable energy has the potential to play a critical role in addressing the world’s energy needs and reducing dependence on fossil fuels. While challenges remain, with continued research and development, renewable energy is likely to become increasingly viable and important in the coming years. SubQuestion No : 99 Q.99 What is the main advantage of renewable energy over fossil fuels? Ans 1. The renewable energy sources will eventually run out. 2. It is cheaper than traditional fossil fuels. 3. It is not limited by the same supply constraints as fossil fuels.  4. It produces the greenhouse gases that are responsible for climate change.

Comprehension: Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow. The topic of renewable energy is becoming increasingly important as concerns about climate change and the depletion of non-renewable resources continue to grow. Renewable energy sources, such as solar and wind power, have the potential to provide a clean and sustainable source of power for the world's growing population. One of the major advantages of renewable energy is that it is not limited by the same supply constraints as fossil fuels. Unlike oil, coal, and natural gas, which are finite resources that will eventually run out, renewable energy sources like solar and wind power will never run out. Additionally, renewable energy sources do not produce the greenhouse gases that are responsible for climate change, making them a much more environmentally friendly option. Despite the clear benefits of renewable energy, there are still significant challenges that need to be overcome in order for it to become a viable alternative to fossil fuels. One of the main challenges is the cost of renewable energy, which is currently higher than traditional fossil fuels. However, as technology continues to improve and economies of scale are achieved, the cost of renewable energy is expected to decrease. Another challenge is the need for reliable and efficient energy storage solutions, which are essential for the widespread adoption of renewable energy. Without effective energy storage solutions, renewable energy sources like solar and wind power can only be used when the sun is shining or the wind is blowing, which greatly limits their overall usefulness. Overall, renewable energy has the potential to play a critical role in addressing the world’s energy needs and reducing dependence on fossil fuels. While challenges remain, with continued research and development, renewable energy is likely to become increasingly viable and important in the coming years. SubQuestion No : 100 Q.100 Identify the tone of the passage. Ans 1. Satirical 2. Informative 3. Sarcastic 4. Subjective

Section : General Intelligence and Reasoning

Q.1 यदि IMAGINATION शब्द के प्रत्येक अक्षर को अंग्रेजी वर्णानुक्रम में अगले अक्षर से बदल दिया जाए और नए शब्द के अक्षरों को वर्णानुक्रम में व्यवस्थित किया जाए, तो इस प्रकार बने नए शब्द के बाएँ छोर से छठा अक्षर कौन-सा होगा? ध्यान दें: उल्लिखित कार्यों को करने के बाद बनाने वाला नया शब्द, ज़रूरी नहीं है कि एक सार्थक अंग्रेज़ी शब्द हो। Ans 1. J 2. N 3. P 4. O

Q.2 उस युग्म का चयन कीजिए जो एक दूसरे से उसी प्रकार संबंधित है जिस प्रकार नीचे दिया गया युग्म संबंधित है 14:205 5:34 (नोट: संख्याओं को उनके घटक अंकों में तोड़े बिना संक्रियाएँ केवल पूर्ण संख्याओं पर की जानी चाहिए। उदाहरण के लिए 13 को लीजिए – 13 पर की जाने वाली संक्रियाएँ, जैसे 13 में जोड़ना / घटाना / गुणा करना इत्यादि केवल 13 पर की जा सकती हैं। 13 को 1 और 3 में तोड़ना और फिर 1 और 3 पर गणितीय संक्रियाएँ करने की अनुमति नहीं है।) Ans 1. 25:636 2. 16:247 3. 28:793 4. 9:91

Q.3 सुरेश अब 19 साल का है और कॉलेज में है। जब वह 5 साल का था, तब से वह एक छात्रावास में रहा और अब 14 साल के लंबे समय के बाद घर वापस आ रहा है। उसके माता-पिता ने उसे रेलवे स्टेशन से उसके घर तक का रास्ता लिखकर भेजा है। सुरेश को उसके माता-पिता द्वारा भेजा गया नीचे दिया गया टेक्स्ट संदेश देखिए और उसके अनुसार निम्नलिखित प्रश्न का उत्तर दीजिए। “जब आप रेलवे स्टेशन से बाहर निकलते हैं, तो आपका मुख उत्तर की ओर होगा। दाएं मुड़ें और 4 km ड्राइव करें, आपको एक T -पॉइंट/जंक्शन दिखाई देगा। दाएं मुड़ें और 2 km ड्राइव करें। चार सड़कों वाला एक गोल चक्कर मिलेगा। गोल चक्कर से बाएं दूसरा मोड़ लें और 1 km ड्राइव करें। दाएं मुड़ें और 3 km ड्राइव करें। बाएं मुड़ें और 2 km ड्राइव करें। आपको हमारा घर सामने मिलेगा। जल्दी घर आओ।" रेलवे स्टेशन से दाएं मुड़ने के बाद सुरेश का मुख किस दिशा में है? Ans 1. पूर्व 2. उत्तर 3. दक्षिण 4. पश्चिम

Q.4 निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सी संख्या दी गई श्रृंखला में प्रश्न चिह्न (?) को प्रतिस्थापित करेगी? 53, 52, 54, 53, 55, ? Ans 1. 55 2. 54 3. 56 4. 57

Q.5 दिए गए विकल्पों में से उस पद का चयन कीजिए जो निम्नलिखित श्रृंखला में प्रश्न चिह्न (?) के स्‍थान पर आ सकता है। DA, XU, RO, LI, ? Ans 1. GD 2. FC 3. ED 4. FB

Q.6 निम्नलिखित समीकरण को सही बनाने के लिए किन दो चिन्हों को आपस में बदलने की आवश्यकता है? {(78 + 70) − (6 × 2))} ÷ 2 = 10 Ans 1. ÷, × 2. ÷, + 3. −, + 4. +, ×

Q.7 छह खिलाड़ी एक गोल मेज के परित: उसके केंद्र की ओर अभिमुख होकर बैठे हैं। R, M के दाएं से दूसरे स्थान पर बैठा है। R और K के बीच केवल दो व्यक्ति बैठे हैं। V, S के दाएं से दूसरे स्थान पर बैठा है। N, K और V दोनों का निकटतम पड़ोसी है। M और R के ठीक बीच में कौन बैठा है? Ans 1. V 2. N 3. K 4. S

Q.8 निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा पद दी गई श्रृंखला में प्रश्न चिह्न (?) के स्‍थान पर आएगा? WKED, ZLHE, CMKF, FNNG, ? Ans 1. IPQI 2. HPPI 3. IOQH 4. HOPH

Q.9 निम्नलिखित व्यंजक के लिए 'शून्य' मान प्राप्त करने के लिए परस्पर किन दो संख्याओं (अंक नहीं) और परस्पर किन दो चिह्नों को बदला जाना चाहिए? 13 + 65 ÷ 2 × 8 – 21 Ans 1. × और –; 21 और 65 2. + और ÷; 13 और 21 3. – और ÷; 8 और 13 4. + और ÷; 13 और 65

Q.10 निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सी संख्या दी गई श्रृंखला में प्रश्न चिह्न (?) को प्रतिस्थापित करेगी? 3, 10, 24, 45, 73, ? Ans 1. 108 2. 106 3. 107 4. 109

Q.11 A, R की पत्नी है। R, C का पुत्र है। B, C की पत्नी है और M, C का भाई है। M का R से क्या संबंध है? Ans 1. चाचा 2. पिता 3. बुआ 4. पुत्र

Q.12 दी गई शृंखला में प्रश्न-चिह्न (?) के स्थान पर क्या आएगा? 614, ?, 349, 249, 168, 104 Ans 1. 470 2. 452 3. 469 4. 513

Q.13 दिए गए विकल्पों में से उस युग्म का चयन कीजिए जो दिए गए युग्म के सदृश हो। 10 : 999 2 : 7 (नोट: संख्याओं को उनके घटक अंकों में तोड़े बिना संक्रियाएँ केवल पूर्ण संख्याओं पर की जानी चाहिए। उदाहरण के लिए 13 को लीजिए – 13 पर की जाने वाली संक्रियाएँ, जैसे 13 में जोड़ना / घटाना / गुणा करना इत्यादि केवल 13 पर की जा सकती हैं। 13 को 1 और 3 में तोड़ना और फिर 1 और 3 पर गणितीय संक्रियाएँ करने की अनुमति नहीं है।) Ans 1. 6 : 215 2. 5 : 128 3. 4 : 65 4. 8 : 315

Q.14 उस विकल्प का चयन कीजिए, जिसमें संख्याएं वही संबंध साझा करती हैं, जो दी गई तीन संख्याओं के समूह द्वारा साझा किया जाता है। (4, 16, 60) (2, 4, 6) (नोट: संख्याओं को उनके घटक अंकों में तोड़े बिना संक्रियाएँ केवल पूर्ण संख्याओं पर की जानी चाहिए। उदाहरण के लिए 13 को लीजिए – 13 पर की जाने वाली संक्रियाएँ, जैसे 13 में जोड़ना / घटाना / गुणा करना इत्यादि केवल 13 पर की जा सकती हैं। 13 को 1 और 3 में तोड़ना और फिर 1 और 3 पर गणितीय संक्रियाएँ करने की अनुमति नहीं है।) Ans 1. 8, 56, 448 2. 3, 9, 24 3. 5, 25, 125 4. 7, 49, 42

Q.15 एक निश्चित कूट भाषा में, 'SECURE' को YJGXTF के रूप में कूटबद्ध किया जाता है और 'FAMILY' को LFQLNZ के रूप में कूटबद्ध किया जाता है। उसी भाषा में 'HOUSES' को किस प्रकार कूटबद्ध किया जाएगा? Ans 1. NTYTGV 2. NTYVGT 3. NTVYGV 4. TGVYTN

Q.16 उस युग्म का चयन कीजिए जो एक दूसरे से उसी प्रकार संबंधित है जिस प्रकार नीचे दिया गया युग्म संबंधित है 27 : 82 9 : 28 (नोट: संख्याओं को उनके घटक अंकों में तोड़े बिना संक्रियाएँ केवल पूर्ण संख्याओं पर की जानी चाहिए। उदाहरण के लिए 13 को लीजिए – 13 पर की जाने वाली संक्रियाएँ, जैसे 13 में जोड़ना / घटाना / गुणा करना इत्यादि केवल 13 पर की जा सकती हैं। 13 को 1 और 3 में तोड़ना और फिर 1 और 3 पर गणितीय संक्रियाएँ करने की अनुमति नहीं है।) Ans 1. 45:138 2. 36:107 3. 42:127 4. 18:37

Q.17 निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सी संख्या दी गई शृंखला में प्रश्न-चिह्न (?)का स्थान लेगी? 13, 29, 61, 125, 253, 509, Ans 1. 1021 2. 1029 3. 1089 4. 1099

Q.18 उस विकल्प का चयन कीजिए जो तीसरी संख्या से उसी प्रकार संबंधित है जिस प्रकार दूसरी संख्या पहली संख्या से संबंधित है और छठी संख्या पांचवीं संख्या से संबंधित है। 546 : 15 :: 879 : ? :: 715 : 13 Ans 1. 19 2. 21 3. 17 4. 24

Q.19 इस प्रश्न में, दो कथनों के बाद विकल्प के रूप में चार निष्कर्ष दिए गए हैं। दिए गए कथनों के आधार पर निर्धारित करें कि कौन सा निष्कर्ष निश्चित रूप से सत्य है। कथन: A ≥ B > C < D E < B > F ≥ G Ans 1. D > E 2. G < A 3. C > E 4. E < G

Q.20 यदि 2 अक्टूबर, 2012 को मंगलवार था, तो 1 अक्टूबर, 2016 को सप्ताह का कौन-सा दिन था? Ans 1. रविवार 2. शनिवार 3. शुक्रवार 4. गुरुवार

Q.21 यदि + का अर्थ ×, × का अर्थ −, − का अर्थ ÷ और ÷ का अर्थ + है, तो दिए गए व्यंजक का मान क्या होगा? 24 – 4 + 18 × 3 ÷ 7 Ans 1.  118 2.  112 3. 120 4.  98

Q.22 कौन सा अक्षर-समूह दी गई श्रृंखला में प्रश्‍न चिह्न (?) को प्रतिस्‍थापित करके श्रृंखला को पूरी करेगा? DUYG, ?, PGKS, VMQY, BSWE Ans 1. JZDN 2. JAEM 3. IZFN 4. KBDM

Q.23 F, D का भाई है। G, B की पुत्री है। H, F की माता है। D, E का पुत्र है। B, F से विवाहित है। B, E से किस प्रकार संबंधित है? Ans 1. पुत्र-वधु 2. पोती 3. सास 4. साला

Q.24 Ans 1. D 2. B 3. C 4. A

Q.25 निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा विकल्प दिए गए शब्दों के उस सही क्रम को दर्शाता है जिस क्रम में वे अंग्रेजी शब्दकोश में दिखाई देते हैं? 1. Immigrate 2. Immediate 3. Immerse 4. Immense 5. Immature Ans 1. 5, 3, 4, 2, 1 2. 5, 4, 2, 3, 1 3. 5, 2, 4, 3, 1 4. 5, 2, 4, 1, 3

Q.26 उस विकल्प का चयन करें, जो तीसरे शब्द से उसी प्रकार संबंधित है ,जैसे दूसरा शब्द पहले शब्द से संबंधित है। (शब्दों को हिन्दी के अर्थपूर्ण शब्दों के रूप में माना जाना चाहिए और ये शब्द, अक्षरों की संख्या/व्यंजनों/स्वरों की संख्या के आधार पर एक-दूसरे से संबंधित नहीं होने चाहिए) नक्शा : दिशाएँ:: नियमावली : ________ Ans 1. कथन 2. मान्यता 3. निष्कर्ष 4. अनुदेश

Q.27 एक निश्चित तर्क का अनुसरण करते हुए 325, 30 से संबंधित है। उसी तर्क का अनुसरण करते हुए, 424, 32 से संबंधित है। उसी तर्क का उपयोग करते हुए निम्नलिखित में से कौन सी संख्या 16 से संबंधित है? Ans 1. 178 2. 180 3. 182 4. 184

Q.28 दिए गए कथनों और निष्कर्षों को ध्यानपूर्वक पढ़िए। यह मानते हुए कि कथनों में दी गई जानकारी सत्य है, भले ही यह सामान्य रूप से ज्ञात तथ्यों से भिन्न प्रतीत होती हो, तय कीजिए कि दिए गए निष्कर्षों में से कौन-सा/से निष्कर्ष इन कथनों का तार्किक रूप से अनुसरण करता है/करते हैं। कथन: कुछ जिंक, लोहा है। कुछ जिंक, चाँदी है। कोई चाँदी, सोना नहीं है। निष्कर्ष: I) कुछ जिंक, सोना नहीं है। II) कुछ जिंक, सोना है। III) कुछ चाँदी, लोहा है। Ans 1. केवल II 2. केवल I 3. केवल III 4. या तो I या II

Q.29 उस विकल्प आकृति का चयन करें जो पैटर्न को पूरा करने के लिए नीचे दी गई आकृति में प्रश्न चिह्न (?) को प्रतिस्थापित करेगी। Ans 1. 2. 3. 4.

Q.30 H, I, J, K, L और M एक वृत्ताकार मेज के पारित: (लेकिन इसी क्रम में जरूरी नहीं) केंद्र की ओर मुख करके बैठे हैं। L और M के बीच केवल दो व्यक्ति बैठे हैं। M, I और J का निकटतम पड़ोसी है। H, I के ठीक दाएं बैठा है। K के बाएं से गिने जाने पर K और H के बीच कितने व्यक्ति बैठे हैं? Ans 1. एक भी नहीं 2. एक 3. तीन 4. दो

Q.31 दिए गए समीकरण को सही करने के लिए किन दो संख्याओं (अंक नहीं) को आपस में बदलना चाहिए? 104 ÷ 8 – 15 + 4 x 26 = 21 Ans 1. 15 और 26 2. 8 और 15 3. 8 और 26 4. 15 और 4

Q.32 निम्नलिखित श्रृंखला को जारी रखने के लिए प्रश्न चिह्न (?) के स्थान पर कौन-सी आकृति आनी चाहिए? Ans 1. 2. 3. 4.

Q.33 तीन कथनों के बाद I, II और III से संख्‍यांकित तीन निष्कर्ष दिए गए हैं। कथनों को सत्य मानते हुए, भले ही वे सामान्य रूप से ज्ञात तथ्यों से भिन्न प्रतीत होते हों, तय करें कि दिए गए निष्कर्षों में से कौन सा/से निष्कर्ष कथनों का तार्किक रूप से अनुसरण करता है/करते हैं। कथन: कुछ चाय, कॉफी हैं। सभी कॉफी, पानी हैं। सभी चाय, कोला हैं। निष्कर्ष: I.कुछ कोला, पानी हैं। II.कुछ कॉफी, कोला हैं। III.कुछ पानी, चाय हैं। Ans 1. केवल निष्कर्ष II अनुसरण करता है 2. सभी निष्कर्ष अनुसरण करते हैं 3. केवल निष्कर्ष II और III अनुसरण करते हैं 4. केवल निष्कर्ष I अनुसरण करता है

Q.34 सात व्यक्तियों F, G, H, K, L, M और N में से प्रत्येक की आयु भिन्न है। केवल H, K से बड़ा है। दूसरा सबसे बड़ा 38 वर्ष का है। L से केवल तीन व्यक्ति छोटे हैं। M केवल N से बड़ा है। M की आयु K की आयु से आधी है। F की आयु 36 वर्ष है। L की आयु 10 की गुणज है। K और L की आयु का योग कितना है? Ans 1. 60 वर्ष 2. 56 वर्ष 3. 68 वर्ष 4. 66 वर्ष

Q.35 एक ही पासे की तीन अलग-अलग स्थितियाँ दर्शाई गई हैं। संख्या '4' दर्शाने वाले फलक के विपरीत वाले फलक पर कौन सी संख्‍या होगी? Ans 1. 2 2. 3 3. 5 4. 6

Q.36 एक निश्चित कूट भाषा में, 'BREATHE' को 70 के रूप में कूटबद्ध किया जाता है और 'TRIUMPH' को 135 के रूप में कूटबद्ध किया जाता है। उसी भाषा में 'TRAGEDY' को किस प्रकार कूटबद्ध किया जाएगा? Ans 1. 95 2. 86 3. 80 4. 111

Q.37 दिए गए कथनों और निष्कर्षों को ध्यानपूर्वक पढ़िए। यह मानते हुए कि कथनों में दी गई जानकारी सत्य है, भले ही यह सामान्य रूप से ज्ञात तथ्यों से भिन्न प्रतीत होती हो, तय कीजिए कि दिए गए निष्कर्षों में से कौन-सा/से निष्कर्ष इन कथनों का तार्किक रूप से अनुसरण करता है/करते हैं। कथनः सभी आयत, समलंब हैं। सभी समलंब, समांतर चतुर्भुज हैं। कोई समांतर चतुर्भुज, वृत्त नहीं है। निष्कर्ष: I) कोई आयत, वृत्त नहीं है। II) कोई समलंब, वृत्त नहीं है। III) सभी आयत, समांतर चतुर्भुज हैं। Ans 1. केवल II और III 2. केवल I और II 3. सभी I, II और III 4. केवल I और III

Q.38 एक निश्चित तर्क का अनुसरण करते हुए 35, 48 से संबंधित है। उसी तर्क का अनुसरण करते हुए, 15, 24 से संबंधित है। उसी तर्क का अनुसरण करते हुए, 80 निम्नलिखित में से किससे संबंधित है? (नोट: संख्याओं को उनके घटक अंकों में तोड़े बिना संक्रियाएँ केवल पूर्ण संख्याओं पर की जानी चाहिए। उदाहरण के लिए 13 को लीजिए – 13 पर की जाने वाली संक्रियाएँ, जैसे 13 में जोड़ना / घटाना / गुणा करना इत्यादि केवल 13 पर की जा सकती हैं। 13 को 1 और 3 में तोड़ना और फिर 1 और 3 पर गणितीय संक्रियाएँ करने की अनुमति नहीं है।) Ans 1. 98 2. 89 3. 95 4. 99

Q.39 दिए गए चार विकल्पों में से तीन विकल्प एक निश्चित तरीके से समान हैं और इस प्रकार एक समूह बनाते हैं। वह कौन-सा विकल्प है जो उस समूह से संबंधित नहीं है? (नोट : असंगत अक्षर-समूह, शब्द में स्वरों या व्यंजनों की संख्या पर आधारित नहीं है।) Ans 1. UXW 2. GJH  3. PSQ 4. BEC

Q.40 एक ही पासे की दो अलग-अलग स्थितियाँ नीचे दिखाई गई हैं। 6 वाले फलक के विपरीत फलक पर कौन-सा अंक है? Ans 1. 2 2. 1 3. 5 4. 4

Q.41 दी गई शृंखला में प्रश्न-चिह्न (?) के स्थान पर क्या आएगा? 120, 101, 139, 82, 158, ? Ans 1. 58 2. 55 3. 63 4. 61

Q.42 कमलेश को एक बहुराष्‍ट्रीय कंपनी में काम करने का मौका मिला। कल उसके कार्यालय का पहला दिन है और उसने अपने साथी कर्मचारी से अपने नए कार्यालय का रास्‍ता पूछा। कमलेश टाउन A (उत्तर में) में रहता है और उसका कार्यालय टाउन F में है। उसके साथी कर्मचारी ने उसे फोन पर रास्‍ता बताया और उसने इसे एक कागज के टुकड़े पर नोट कर लिया। लिखित प्रतिलिपि नीचे है। प्रतिलिपि को ध्यान से पढ़ें और नीचे दिए गए प्रश्न का उत्तर दें। 'टाउन A से बाएं मुड़ें और 2 km चलें और आप टाउन B में होंगे। टाउन B से बाएं मुड़ें और टाउन C तक पहुंचने के लिए 3 km चलें। टाउन C से दाएं मुड़ें और टाउन D तक पहुंचने के लिए 4 km और चलें। टाउन D से दाएं मुड़ें और टाउन E तक पहुंचने के लिए 4 km चलें। टाउन E से बाएं मुड़ें और टाउन F तक पहुंचने के लिए 5 km चलें। कार्यालय टाउन F में है।' टाउन D पहुँचने पर, कमलेश कल कितने किलोमीटर की दूरी तय कर चुका होगा? Ans 1. 18 2. 9 3. 13 4. 5

Q.43 उस विकल्प का चयन करें, जो तीसरे शब्द से उसी प्रकार संबंधित है, जिस प्रकार दूसरा शब्द, पहले शब्द से संबंधित है। (शब्दों को अर्थपूर्ण हिंदी/ अँग्रेजी शब्दों के रूप में माना जाना चाहिए और शब्द में अक्षरों की संख्या/व्यंजनों/स्वरों की संख्या के आधार पर एक दूसरे से संबंधित नहीं होना चाहिए) आप्रवासन : प्रवेश :: उत्प्रवासन : ? Ans 1. पासपोर्ट 2. हवाई-जहाज 3. प्रस्थान 4. जोड़ना

Q.44 निम्नलिखित चार अक्षर-समूहों में से तीन किसी निश्चित शैली में समान है और एक असंगत है। उस असंगत का चयन कीजिए। (नोट : असंगत अक्षर-समूह, शब्द में स्वरों या व्यंजनों की संख्या पर आधारित नहीं है।) Ans 1. UEDC 2. QILG 3. SGJE 4. PJMH

Q.45 जब संख्या 12 और 6 को आपस में बदल दिया जाता है और चिह्न ÷ और + को आपस में बदल दिया जाता है, तो निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा समीकरण सही होगा? Ans 1. 12 ÷ 3 - 8 - 6 + 1 = 15 2. 4 - 6 × 12 ÷ 5 + 7 = 22 3. 6 ÷ 4 ×5 - 12 + 3 = 30 4. 9 ÷ 6 × 4 + 12 - 3 = 18

Q.46 नीचे दो कथन और उसके बाद दो निष्कर्ष I और II दिए गए हैं। कथनों को सत्य मानते हुए, भले ही वे सामान्य रूप से ज्ञात तथ्यों से भिन्न प्रतीत होते हों, निर्णय लीजिए कि कौन-सा/से निष्कर्ष कथनों का तार्किक रूप से अनुसरण करता/करते है/हैं। कथन: सभी किताबें कॉपी हैं। कुछ किताबें मूल-पाठ हैं। निष्कर्ष: I. कुछ मूल-पाठ कॉपी हैं। II. कोई मूल-पाठ कॉपी नहीं है। Ans 1. केवल निष्कर्ष I अनुसरण करता है। 2. निष्कर्ष I और II दोनों अनुसरण करते हैं। 3. न तो निष्कर्ष I और न ही II अनुसरण करता है। 4. केवल निष्कर्ष II अनुसरण करता है।

Q.47 उस विकल्प आकृति का चयन करें जो नीचे दी गई आकृति में प्रश्न चिह्न (?) के स्थान पर आकर पैटर्न को पूरा कर देगी। Ans 1. 2. 3. 4.

Q.48 Ans 1. 2. 3. 4.

Q.49 दी गई आकृति में कितने त्रिभुज हैं? Ans 1. 11 2. 14 3. 13 4. 12

Q.50 निम्नलिखित समीकरण में यदि '+' का अर्थ '÷' है, '−' का अर्थ '×' है, '×' का अर्थ '+' है और '÷' का अर्थ '−' है, तो प्रश्न-चिह्न (?) के स्थान पर क्या आएगा? (280 + 10 × 20) − 8 ÷ 6 = ? Ans 1. 376 2. 368 3. 378 4. 388

Section : General Awareness

Q.1 राष्‍ट्रीय संबद्ध और स्वास्थ्य देख-रेख वृत्‍ति आयोग अधिनियम, 2021 में उपबंधित रूप में राष्‍ट्रीय संबद्ध और स्वास्थ्य देख-रेख वृत्‍ति आयोग का एक पदेन सदस्य निम्नलिखित में से कौन होता है? Ans 1. संयुक्त सचिव, कानूनी मामलों के विभाग, कानून और न्याय मंत्रालय 2. सचिव, गृह मंत्रालय, भारत सरकार 3. स्वास्थ्य और परिवार कल्याण मंत्री, भारत सरकार 4. प्रधान मंत्री

Q.2 हड़प्पा सभ्यता के भवनों और संरचनाओं का अध्ययन करने के लिए, एक शिक्षक को अपने विद्यार्थियों को भारत के निम्नलिखित में से किन राज्यों की यात्रा पर ले जाना चाहिए? Ans 1. गुजरात और राजस्थान 2. सिक्किम और त्रिपुरा 3. तमिलनाडु और आंध्र प्रदेश 4. बंगाल और ओडिशा

Q.3 चपटे कृमि में पाई जाने वाली विशिष्ट कोशिकाओं के प्रकार की पहचान कीजिए, जो परासरण नियमन में सहायक हैं। Ans 1. ज्वाला कोशिकाएँ 2. मध्य त्वचा 3. स्टेम कोशिकाएँ 4. शुक्राणु कोशिकाएँ

Q.4 भारतीय महिला प्रीमियर लीग (क्रिकेट) का पहला संस्करण वर्ष _________ में आयोजित किया गया था। Ans 1. 2000 2. 2022 3. 2023 4. 2021

Q.5 निम्नलिखित में से किस भारतीय शास्त्रीय संगीतकार को सरोद का उस्ताद (Sarod Maestro) भी कहा जाता है? Ans 1. बिस्मिल्लाह खाँ 2. असद अली खान 3. आर. वी. राघवन 4. अमजद अली खान

Q.6 दिसंबर 2022 में, भारतीय ओलंपिक संघ की पहली महिला अध्यक्ष कौन बनीं? Ans 1. साक्षी मलिक 2. मैरी कॉम 3. पी.टी. उषा 4. पी.वी. सिंधु

Q.7 प्रधानमंत्री फसल बीमा योजना के अंतर्गत, रबी की फसलों के लिए किसानों द्वारा देय अधिकतम प्रीमियम _________ होगा। Ans 1. 1.5% 2. 4.5% 3. 6% 4. 3%

Q.8 मुख्य रूप से तेलंगाना में मनाए जाने वाले फूलों के त्योहार को _________ के नाम से भी जाना जाता है। Ans 1. फूल देई 2. फुलैच 3. बतुकम्मा 4. कजरी

Q.9 कपड़े बनाने में कपास का उपयोग किया जाता है। इस उदाहरण में कपास किस प्रकार की वस्‍तु है? Ans 1. निम्‍नस्‍तरीय 2. पूँजीगत 3. घटिया 4. मध्‍यवर्ती

Q.10 द इनहेरिटेंस ऑफ लॉस (The Inheritance of Loss) पुस्तक के/की लेखक/लेखिका निम्नलिखित में से कौन हैं? Ans 1. किरण देसाई 2. कमला भसीन 3. मीना कंदासामी 4. मंजू कपूर

Q.11 2023 में हुए एक दिवसीय अंतर्राष्ट्रीय क्रिकेट विश्व कप की मेजबानी निम्नलिखित में से किस देश ने की थी? Ans 1. भारत 2. ऑस्ट्रेलिया 3. पाकिस्तान 4. इंग्लैंड

Q.12 अशोक द्वारा महाबोधि मंदिर पूरी तरह से ________ से बनाया गया था। Ans 1. लकड़ी 2. पत्थरों 3. ईंटों 4. चट्टानों

Q.13 1950 से 1990 तक, सकल घरेलू उत्पाद (GDP) में कृषि क्षेत्र के योगदान के अनुपात में ______ । Ans 1. उल्लेखनीय वृद्धि नहीं हुई 2. उल्लेखनीय गिरावट नहीं आई 3. काफी गिरावट आई 4. समान रहा

Q.14 बेग़मपुरी मस्जिद का निर्माण दिल्ली सल्तनत के निम्नलिखित में से किस शासक के शासनकाल में हुआ था? Ans 1. मुहम्मद तुगलक 2. फिरोज शाह तुगलक 3. सिकंदर लोदी 4. बहलोल लोदी

Q.15 भारत की वर्ष 2011 की जनगणना के अनुसार, किस राज्य में सबसे अधिक झुग्गी बस्तियों में रहने वाली आबादी है? Ans 1. महाराष्ट्र 2. उत्तर प्रदेश 3. आंध्र प्रदेश 4. राजस्थान

Q.16 मालाबार तट, भारत के, निम्नलिखित में से कौन-से राज्य में स्थित है? Ans 1. महाराष्ट्र 2. ओडिशा 3. गुजरात 4. केरल

Q.17 भारत में थियोसोफिकल सोसायटी का पहला मुख्यालय कहाँ स्थापित किया गया था? Ans 1. मदुरई 2. पुदुचेरी 3. कोलकाता 4. अड्यार

Q.18 निम्नलिखित में से कौन 'द गॉड ऑफ स्मॉल थिंग्स' के लेखक/लेखिका हैं? Ans 1. अनीता देसाई 2. अरुंधति राय 3. चित्रा बनर्जी दिवाकरुणी 4. विक्रम सेठ

Q.19 निम्नलिखित में से भिन्न (विषम) विकल्प को पहचानिए। Ans 1. क्लोरीन 2. फ्लोरीन 3. आर्गन 4. ब्रोमीन

Q.20 1784 के पिट्स इंडिया एक्ट में निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा शामिल नहीं था? Ans 1. मद्रास और बॉम्बे प्रेसीडेंसी को बंगाल प्रेसीडेंसी के तहत लाया गया 2. छह सरकारी नियुक्तियों की एक समिति, जिसे नियंत्रण बोर्ड के रूप में जाना जाता है, का गठन किया गया था 3. ईस्ट इंडिया कंपनी के सभी ऋण भारत की ब्रिटिश सरकार द्वारा ले लिए गए थे 4. भारत का शासन गवर्नर जनरल और तीन सदस्यों वाली एक परिषद को सौंप दिया गया था

Q.21 कूलॉम का नियम _________ के लिए लागू होता है। Ans 1. न तो बिंदु आवेश और न ही वितरित आवेश 2. दो बिंदु आवेशों के मध्य 3. दो वितरित आवेशों के मध्य 4. वितरित आवेश और बिंदु आवेश दोनों

Q.22 44वाँ शतरंज ओलंपियाड (Chess Olympiad) निम्नलिखित में से किस शहर में आयोजित किया गया? Ans 1. चेन्नई 2. भोपाल 3. मुंबई 4. अहमदाबाद

Q.23 उत्तर भारतीय वास्तुकला को क्या कहा जाता है? Ans 1. नागरा शैली 2. द्रविड़ शैली 3. रोमन-ग्रीक शैली 4. इंडो-सारसेनिक शैली

Q.24 मध्य भारत के सतनामी आंदोलन के संदर्भ में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए। a) इस आंदोलन की स्थापना घासीदास ने की थी। b) यह आंदोलन चमड़ा श्रमिकों की स्थिति में सुधार लाने के लिए था। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/कौन-से कथन सही है/हैं? Ans 1. a और b दोनों 2. केवल b 3. केवल a 4. न तो a और न ही b

Q.25 बिहार में मिथिला क्षेत्र के मछुआरों द्वारा निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा लोक नृत्य किया जाता है? Ans 1. कर्मा 2. कमला 3. नृत्यकाली 4. जिया

Q.26 उपन्यासकार और उनकी रचनाओं के सही संयोजन का चयन कीजिए। Ans 1. वेटिंग फॉर महात्मा (Waiting for Mahatma) - राजा राव 2. द कैट एंड शेक्सपियर (The Cat and Shakespeare) - रवीन्द्रनाथ टैगोर 3. द चेस मास्टर एंड हिज मूव्स (The Chess Master and His Moves) – आर.के. नारायण 4. टू लीव्स एंड ए बड (Two Leaves and a Bud) - मुल्क राज आनंद

Q.27 मौर्य साम्राज्य के नगर प्रशासन के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए। a) मेगस्थनीज़ ने मौर्यकालीन नगर प्रशासन पर प्रकाश डाला था। b) नगर परिषद को छ: समितियों में विभाजित किया गया था। c) नगर प्रशासन सुनियोजित था। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/कौन-से कथन सही है/हैं? Ans 1. b, c 2. c, a 3. a, b 4. a, b, c

Q.28 मैग्नीशियम हाइड्रॉक्साइड यौगिक का सही रासायनिक सूत्र ________ है। Ans 1. Mg(OH)2 2. Mg(OH) 3. Mg2(OH) 4. MgOH2

Q.29 दो प्रजातियों के बीच अंतराजातीय पारस्परिक क्रिया, जिसमें दोनों सदस्यों को लाभ होता है, को क्या कहा जाता है? Ans 1. अद्वितीयता 2. सहजीविता 3. तटस्थता 4. परजीविता

Q.30 निम्नलिखित में से किस विकल्प में केवल ऊर्जा के मात्रक दिए गए हैं? Ans 1. जूल, कैलोरी, न्यूटन 2. जूल, न्यूटन, किलोवाट घंटा 3. कैलोरी, किलोवाट घंटा, न्यूटन 4. जूल, कैलोरी, किलोवाट घंटा

Q.31 वर्ष 2011 की जनगणना के अनुसार, सात बहनों वाले राज्यों (सेवन सिस्टर्स स्टेट्स) के किस समूह की साक्षरता दर सबसे अधिक है? Ans 1. मिज़ोरम और त्रिपुरा 2. त्रिपुरा और अरुणाचल प्रदेश 3. मणिपुर और नागालैंड 4. मिज़ोरम और मेघालय

Q.32 निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा जलमार्ग देश का राष्ट्रीय जलमार्ग नही है? Ans 1. राष्ट्रीय जलमार्ग संख्या 4 2. राष्ट्रीय जलमार्ग संख्या 6 3. राष्ट्रीय जलमार्ग संख्या 1 4. राष्ट्रीय जलमार्ग संख्या 2

Q.33 भारतीय खेल प्राधिकरण का मुख्यालय कहाँ स्थित है? Ans 1. केरल 2. नई दिल्ली 3. पंजाब 4. कोलकाता

Q.34 सही कथन का चयन कीजिए। Ans 1. पशु ऑटोट्रॉफ़ हैं। 2. सभी जीवाणु ऑटोट्रॉफ़्स होते हैं। 3. ऑटोट्रॉफ़्स का अस्तित्व सीधे हेटरोट्रॉफ़्स पर निर्भर करता है। 4. हेटरोट्रॉफ़्स का अस्तित्व प्रत्यक्ष या अप्रत्यक्ष रूप से ऑटोट्रॉफ़्स पर निर्भर करता है।

Q.35 भारत में हरित क्रांति की अवधि के दौरान, बाल पोषण-केंद्रित योजना, एकीकृत बाल विकास योजना (ICDS) ________ में शुरू की गई थी। Ans 1. 1975 2. 1976 3. 1977 4. 1972

Q.36 भारत के अंतर्राष्ट्रीय व्यापार के बदलते पैटर्न के बारे में निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा कथन सत्य है? Ans 1. कृषि और सहबद्ध उत्पादों की हिस्सेदारी स्थिर बनी हुई है, जबकि पेट्रोलियम और कच्चे उत्पादों तथा अन्य वस्तुओं की हिस्सेदारी में उतार-चढ़ाव आया है। 2. कृषि और सहबद्ध उत्पादों की हिस्सेदारी में भिन्‍नता रही है, जबकि पेट्रोलियम और कच्चे उत्पादों तथा अन्य वस्तुओं की हिस्सेदारी स्थिर रही है। 3. कृषि और सहबद्ध उत्पादों की हिस्सेदारी में गिरावट आई है, जबकि पेट्रोलियम और कच्चे उत्पादों तथा अन्य वस्तुओं की हिस्सेदारी में वृद्धि हुई है। 4. कृषि और सहबद्ध उत्पादों की हिस्सेदारी बढ़ी है, जबकि पेट्रोलियम और कच्चे उत्पादों तथा अन्य वस्तुओं की हिस्सेदारी में गिरावट आई है।

Q.37 वाणिज्यिक बैंकों द्वारा आरबीआई के पास रखने के लिए आवश्यक नकद आरक्षित राशि को क्या कहा जाता है? Ans 1. एसएलआर 2. बैंक दर 3. सीआरआर 4. रेपो दर

Q.38 निम्नलिखित में से कौन एक प्रसिद्ध मोहिनीअट्टम नृत्यांगना है? Ans 1. मल्लिका साराभाई 2. सुनंदा नायर 3. सीमा किरमानी 4. सास्वती सेन

Q.39 निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा कथन भारतीय उपमहाद्वीप की जलवायु के संबंध में सही है? Ans 1. उत्तर भारत की जलवायु पूरे वर्ष भर एक समान रहती है। 2. थार रेगिस्तान मध्य एशिया से आने वाली अत्यंत ठंडी हवाओं से बचाता है। 3. हिमालय इस उपमहाद्वीप को मध्य एशिया से आने वाली अत्यंत ठंडी हवाओं से बचाता है। 4. पश्चिमी घाट मध्य एशिया से आने वाली अत्यंत ठंडी हवाओं से बचाता है।

Q.40 त्रिपुरा की खर्ची पूजा ________ के महीने में मनाई जाती है। Ans 1. सितंबर-अक्टूबर 2. जनवरी-फरवरी 3. जुलाई-अगस्त 4. अप्रैल-मई

Q.41 'राग माला' निम्नलिखित संगीतकारों में से किसकी आत्मकथा है? Ans 1. ए.आर. रहमान 2. लता मंगेशकर 3. अमजद अली खान 4. रवि शंकर

Q.42 __________ अमीबाभ (अमीबा जैसे संचलन, स्यूडोपोडिया के साथ) हैं जिन्हें केशिका भित्तियों के माध्यम से निचोड़ सकते हैं। Ans 1. रक्षक कोशिकाएं 2. सफेद रक्त कोशिकाएं 3. तंत्रिका कोशिकाएं 4. लाल रक्त कोशिकाएं

Q.43 जीवाणु कोशिका भित्ति के संबंध में सही कथन का चयन कीजिए। Ans 1. जीवाणु कोशिका भित्ति का प्रमुख घटक सेल्यूलोज है। 2. जीवाणु कोशिका भित्ति का प्रमुख घटक पेक्टिन है। 3. जीवाणु कोशिका भित्ति का प्रमुख घटक काइटिन है। 4. जीवाणु कोशिका भित्ति का प्रमुख घटक पेप्टिडोग्लाइकन या म्यूरिन है।

Q.44 निम्नलिखित में से किसे स्वपोषित जीव के रूप में वर्गीकृत किया गया है? Ans 1. मानव 2. जंतु 3. पादप 4. कवक

Q.45 सम्राट अशोक के निम्नलिखित में से किस शिलालेख में कलिंग युद्ध का वर्णन है? Ans 1. स्तंभ शिलालेख IV 2. शिलालेख II 3. स्तंभ शिलालेख III 4. शिलालेख XIII

Q.46 निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा आयोग किसी जाति या समुदाय के हितों की रक्षा नहीं करता है? Ans 1. राष्ट्रीय अनुसूचित जनजाति आयोग 2. राष्ट्रीय अनुसूचित जाति आयोग 3. राष्ट्रीय पिछड़ा वर्ग आयोग 4. भारतीय वित्त आयोग

Q.47 भारतीय कृषि अनुसंधान परिषद (ICAR) ने संयुक्त राज्य अमेरिका के कृषि विभाग (USDA) मृदा वर्गीकरण के अनुसार भारतीय मृदा को _____ श्रेणियों में वर्गीकृत किया है? Ans 1. 7 2. 9 3. 8 4. 12

Q.48 भारतीय संविधान का कौन-सा अनुच्छेद कानून के समक्ष समानता से संबंधित है? Ans 1. अनुच्छेद 18 2. अनुच्छेद 20 3. अनुच्छेद 14 4. अनुच्छेद 16

Q.49 ________ दो टीमों के बीच का खेल है, जिसमें प्रत्येक टीम में सामान्‍यत: छह खिलाड़ी होते हैं, जो स्केट्स पहनते हैं और एक आइस रिंक (बर्फ़ के मैदान) पर प्रतिस्पर्धा करते हैं। Ans 1. आइस स्केटिंग 2. रिंगेट 3. आइस हॉकी 4. रिंकबॉल

Q.50 डॉ जयंती कुमारेश एक प्रसिद्ध________ वादक हैं। Ans 1. हारमोनियम 2. सरस्वती वीणा 3. मृदंगम 4. घटम

Section : English Language and Comprehension

Q.1 Select the most appropriate adverb to fill in the blank. He is good _________ for the job. Ans 1. rather 2. partly 3. enough 4. altogether

Q.2 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word. Taciturnity Ans 1. Eloquence 2. Talkative 3. Silence  4. Tactic

Q.3 The given sentence is divided into four segments. Select the option that has the segment with a grammatical error. When I saw / her, she write / a poem / with full attention. Ans 1. her, she write 2. with full attention.  3. when I saw 4. a poem

Q.4 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in reported speech. Koushik said to Tarun, “You are a good cricketer.” Ans 1. Koushik tells Tarun that he is a good cricketer. 2. Koushik told Tarun that he had been a good cricketer.  3. Koushik told that Tarun is a good cricketer.  4. Koushik told Tarun that he was a good cricketer.

Q.5 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank. If you are going to keep eating those cookies, you are going to ________ your dinner. Ans 1. mute 2. cheer 3. miss 4. allow

Q.6 Select the option that expresses the following sentence in direct speech. He told me that he would have finished the project by the following day. Ans 1. “I will have finished the project by tomorrow,” he said to me. 2. “I will finish the project by the next day,” he said to me. 3. “I would finish the project,” he said to me tomorrow. 4. “I have finished the project by tomorrow,” he said to me.

Q.7 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom. Diamond in the rough Ans 1. An industry of star-struck actors 2. An unsophisticated person with potential 3. Unpolished diamonds  4. A top model

Q.8 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error. The compensation that the [A] / Government agreed to provide to [B] / the dependents of the [C] / train accident is fairly less [D]. Ans 1. C 2. B 3. D 4. A

Q.9 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank. The difference between a male and a female still __________ in our society. In this era where women have such great achievements in every field, still in some sections of our community, a man is always termed as superior to women. Ans 1. requires 2. persists 3. insists 4. defects

Q.10 Identify the error in the given sentence and select the option that correctly rectifies the error. The day is longer than year on Venus. Ans 1. All day is longer than a year on Venus. 2. A day is longer than the year on Venus. 3. A day is longer than a year on Venus. 4. Day is longer than the year on Venus.

Q.11 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in passive voice. Suma is making tea. Ans 1. Tea is being made by Suma. 2. Tea was made by Suma. 3. Tea has been made by Suma. 4. Tea was being made by Suma.

Q.12 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in active voice. Let the door be closed. Ans 1. Please let him close the door. 2. The door is closed. 3. The door will be closed. 4. Close the door.

Q.13 Select the alternative from the given options that best expresses the same sentence in active/passive voice. Who built this colossal architectural structure? Ans 1. By whom is this colossal architectural structure built? 2. Who had this colossal architectural structure built? 3. By whom was this colossal architectural structure built? 4. By whom has this colossal architectural structure been built ?

Q.14 Select the phrase/idiom that will improve the underlined part of the given sentence. Our defence minister has shown his silver will by introducing this scheme. Ans 1. diamond will 2. golden will 3. iron will 4. stony will

Q.15 Parts of the following sentence have been underlined and given as options. Select the option that contains an error. I stayed in my hometown with my parents on the pandemic. Ans 1. in 2. I 3. on 4. with

Q.16 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom. A bird's eye view Ans 1. To move or rise into sight, especially from a distance 2. A clear impression of what is happening  3. A limited understanding of something 4. To hold a negative or pessimistic opinion on something

Q.17 Sentences of a paragraph are given below in jumbled order. Arrange the sentences in the correct order to form a meaningful and coherent paragraph. A. Telugu movie industry is proud of many great producers, directors, artists and musicians. B. Savithri was one such great artist who influenced Telegu movie industry single-handedly for many years. C. Her initial interest was in dance so she learnt dance before entering movies. D. She is still worshipped for her matchless expressions and dialogue delivery. Ans 1. BCDA 2. ACDB 3. ABCD 4. CDAB

Q.18 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains an error. One of the great rivers / of China, a Hwang Ho, / originates from the / eastern face of Tibet. Ans 1. of China, a Hwang Ho, 2. originates from the 3. One of the great rivers 4. eastern face of Tibet

Q.19 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in indirect speech. "Dear daughter," she said caressing her cheeks, “have you come to comfort me in my time of need?” Ans 1. Caressing her daughter’s cheeks, she asked affectionately if she did come to comfort her in her time of need. 2. Caressing her daughter’s cheeks, she said affectionately if she had been coming to comfort her in her time of need. 3. Caressing her daughter’s cheeks, she asked affectionately if she had come to comfort her in her time of need. 4. Caressing her daughter’s cheeks, she said affectionately if she has come to comfort her in her time of need.

Q.20 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank. Venus didn’t have any moons or satellites or even a ___________ field, but it did have an atmosphere sort of similar to Earth’s, except it was super-hot. Ans 1. graphological 2. pedagogic 3. musicological 4. magnetic

Q.21 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error. In August, she will be / enjoying / all the fruits her grandmother / will plant last January. Ans 1. will plant last January  2. enjoying  3. In August, she will be   4. all the fruits her grandmother

Q.22 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error. I have thought at / what you said / and I’ve decided / to take your advice. Ans 1. what you said 2. and I’ve decided 3. to take your advice 4. I have thought at

Q.23 Select the option that will improve the underlined part of the given sentence. I know a person who parents live in Milan. Ans 1. what parents 2. whom parents 3. which parents 4. whose parents

Q.24 Select the option that correctly expresses the following sentence in direct speech. She told me that she had already finished the project. Ans 1. She told me, “ He had already finished the project.” 2. She said to me, “I have already finished the project.” 3. She said to her, “I already finished the project.” 4. She said, “She will have finished the project.”

Q.25 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom. Weal and woe Ans 1. Simplicity and complexity 2. Early and late  3. Hot and cold  4. Joy and sorrow

Q.26 Select the most appropriate synonym of the underlined word. The lockdown during Covid-19 in certain places has imposed threatening constraints on market economy and it will take time to recover from this. Ans 1. Problems  2. Faiths  3. Beliefs  4. Restrictions

Q.27 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in passive voice. The secretary has planted a lot of saplings to save the environment. Ans 1. A lot of saplings are planted by the secretary to save the environment. 2. A lot of saplings were planted by the secretary to save the environment.   3. A lot of saplings have been planted by the secretary to save the environment.  4. A lot of saplings are being planted by the secretary to save the environment.

Q.28 Select the correct alternative from the given options that correctly changes the form of narration in the given sentence. The Headmistress said, “What a performance!” Ans 1. The Headmistress said that what a performance. 2. The Headmistress exclaimed what a great performance. 3. The Headmistress exclaimed that it was a great performance. 4. The Headmistress praised what a great performance.

Q.29 Sentences of a paragraph are given below in jumbled order. Arrange the sentences in the correct order to form a meaningful and coherent paragraph. (A) I must tell you that I am referring to the tax year which began on 1 April (B) Let me be the first to wish you a very happy New Year (C)In case none of your friends or family did so (D) Now, before you ask whether the spring sunshine has gone to my head Ans 1. CBDA 2. DBAC 3. ADCB 4. BACD

Q.30 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in passive voice. They will have to pull down this building as they have not complied with the building regulations of the city. Ans 1. This building is to be pulled down by them as the building regulations of the city have not been complied with by them.  2. This building needs to be pulled down by them as the building regulations of the city have not been complied with.   3. This building will be pulled down as the building regulations of the city have not been complied with by them. 4. This building will have to be pulled down by them as the building regulations of the city have not been complied with.

Q.31 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in passive voice. The interference of the police force would have controlled the situation. Ans 1. The situation could be controlled by the interference of the police force. 2. The situation could have been controlled by the interference of the police force. 3. The situation would have been controlled by the interference of the police force. 4. The situation would be controlled by the interference of the police force.

Q.32 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. My mom made her muffins, but she didn’t eat none. Ans 1. she did ate many 2. she did eat none  3. she didn’t ate any  4. she didn’t eat any

Q.33 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the underlined word in the given sentence. His was a stupendous performance in the competition. Ans 1. Unimpressive 2. Soothing 3. Mnemonic 4. Herculean

Q.34 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom. Loose cannon Ans 1. Someone who is well known and respected in society 2. Someone who is unpredictable and liable to cause problems 3. Someone who is quiet and reserved in social situations 4. Someone who is enthusiastic and very eager to take responsibilities

Q.35 Select the most appropriate synonym for the given word. Recumbent Ans 1. Upright 2. Prostrate 3. Upstanding 4. Review

Q.36 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in passive voice. Were you laughing at the poor masses? Ans 1. Were the poor masses being laughed at by you? 2. Have the poor masses been laughed at by you? 3. Had the masses been laughed at by you? 4. Are the poor masses being laughed at by you?

Q.37 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in indirect speech. Jatin said, “I was at home yesterday.” Ans 1. Jatin said that he was at home yesterday. 2. Jatin said that he had been at home the day before. 3. Jatin said he was at home. 4. Jatin said he was at home the day before.

Q.38 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in passive form. The shopkeeper lifted the shutter to open his shop. Ans 1. To open his shop, the shutter is lifted by the shopkeeper. 2. The shutter is being lifted by the shopkeeper to open his shop. 3. The shutter will be lifted by the shopkeeper to open his shop. 4. The shutter was lifted by the shopkeeper to open his shop.

Q.39 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in active voice. Was your bicycle stolen by him? Ans 1. Was he stealing your bicycle? 2. Had he stolen your bicycle? 3. Did he steal your bicycle? 4. Has he stolen your bicycle?

Q.40 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in active voice. This saree was bought by my son on the occasion of my birthday. Ans 1. My son bought this saree on the occasion of my birthday. 2. My son has bought this saree on the occasion of my birthday. 3. My son had bought this saree on the occasion of my birthday. 4. My son has bought the saree on the occasion of my birthday.

Q.41 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank. Although one’s body language is a very powerful medium of expression, we express our thoughts, verbally or _________ through language, which is our main way of communication. Ans 1. textually 2. hyperbolically 3. banefully 4. anemically

Q.42 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error. In the next few months, / they will / have teach / hundreds of children. Ans 1. they will  2. have teach  3. hundreds of children 4. In the next few months,

Q.43 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom. Your guess is as good as mine Ans 1. To guess an incredible idea 2. To be superstitious 3. To have no idea of the answer 4. To predict a disaster

Q.44 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank. One should keep _________ surroundings neat and tidy. Ans 1. ones 2. there's 3.  there 4. one’s

Q.45 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in direct speech. He asked me affectionately what he could do for me. Ans 1. He said to me, “What could he do?” 2. He said to me, “What should be done for you?” 3. He said to me, “What can I do for you, dear?” 4. He said to me, “What can be done for me?”

Q.46 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the underlined word. She made a courageous decision to quit her job. Ans 1. myopic 2. coward 3. obstinate 4. calm

Q.47 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word. Exaggerate Ans 1. Embellish 2. Neglect 3. Understate  4. Emphasise

Q.48 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in passive voice. Who has told you to buy trash from the market? Ans 1. Who could tell you to buy trash? 2. By whom had you been told to buy trash? 3. By whom have you been told to buy trash? 4. The buying of trash has been told by whom?

Q.49 Select the most appropriate form and tense of the bracketed verb in the following sentence to fill in the blank. I’m busy today. I’d rather we ________ (has) the meeting tomorrow. Ans 1. Has been   2. had  3. had been 4. has

Q.50 Identify the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word. Fathomable Ans 1. Inauspicious 2. Incite 3. Incoherent 4. Inartistic

Q.51 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in direct speech. He ordered his soldiers to take that bird away. Its gilded cage reminded him of his father whom he had imprisoned. Ans 1. He said to his soldiers, “Take this bird away. Its gilded cage reminded me of my father whom I imprison.”   2. He said to his soldiers, “Take the bird away. Its gilded cage reminded him of his father whom I imprison.”  3. He said to his soldiers, “Take this bird away. Its gilded cage reminds me of my father whom I imprisoned.” 4. He said to his soldiers, “May this bird be taken away. Its gilded cage reminds me of my father whom I imprisoned.”

Q.52 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank. For no ___________ reason, the train suddenly stopped, and the passengers went into a state of panic. Ans 1. apparent 2. taken 3. gaudy 4. florid

Q.53 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the bracketed word in the following sentence to fill in the blank. The patient consumed mushrooms for hallucinatory experiences, but the doctor advised to consume only ________(hallucinogenic) drugs. Ans 1. regular 2. freaky 3. psychedelic 4. abnormal

Q.54 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the underlined word in the given sentence. The team’s performance was at its zenith in 2017. Ans 1. Peak 2. Sneak 3. Nadir  4. Height

Q.55 The given sentence is divided into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error. If we / were meeting at 6 p.m., / we will / have plenty of time. Ans 1. have plenty of time.  2. we will   3. were meeting at 6 p.m.,  4. If we

Q.56 Sentences of a paragraph—labelled A, B, C, D—are given below in jumbled order. Select the option that arranges the sentences in the correct logical order to form a meaningful and coherent paragraph. A.The Booker is awarded on 17 October, which also happens to be Garner’s 88th birthday, a coincidence that itself feels a little magical. B.‘If the rocks, caves, lakes, fens, bogs and dens of the land of Britain had a voice, it would sound like Alan Garner telling a story.’ C.This year Alan Garner became the oldest author ever to be shortlisted for the Booker Prize for his small but mighty novel Treacle Walker. D.Treacle Walker, a dreamlike fable of a convalescent boy named Joseph, a rag-and-bone man and a bog-dwelling spirit is at once a characteristically cryptic tale of a child threatened by dark forces, a meditation on time and mortality and a vivid example of folk horror. Ans 1. A, D, B, C 2. C, A, D, B 3. B, D, A, C 4. D, A, C, B

Q.57 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in indirect speech. He said, “Shall I ever reach my destination?” Ans 1. He wondered if he would ever reach his destination.  2. He said I shall never reach his destination.  3. He said to me I shall never reach my destination.  4. He said he shall never reach his destination.

Q.58 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in direct speech. Ravi said that he might go to the mall. Ans 1. Ravi said, “I may go to the mall.” 2. Ravi said, “I can go to the mall.” 3. Ravi said, “I could go to the mall.” 4. Ravi said, “I will go to the mall.”

Q.59 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in direct speech. The doctor advised me to take bed rest and eat nutritious food. Ans 1. The doctor said to me, “Take bed rest and eat nutritious food.” 2. The doctor told me, “I should take bed rest and eat nutritious food.” 3. The doctor said to me, “I take bed rest and eat nutritious food.” 4. The doctor said to me, “You take bed rest and eat nutritious food.”

Q.60 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the underlined word. This narrow lane will take you to your destination. Ans 1. slender 2. straight 3. broad 4. mild

Q.61 Sentences of a paragraph are given below in jumbled order. Select the option that arranges the sentences in the correct order to form a meaningful and coherent paragraph. A. Before we could react or comprehend, the waters had wiped out all the shanties on the beach. B. The word ‘tsunami’ sends shivers down my spine. C. Suddenly, on a bright afternoon I noticed a lot of waves grow bigger and splash quickly. D. I still remember my vacation in Thailand the day the tsunami struck. Ans 1. A, B, C, D 2. B, D, C, A 3. D, A, B, C 4. C, D, A, B

Q.62 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank. The Great wall of China was built to link existing fortifications into a united __________ system and to keep the invading Mongol tribes out of China. Ans 1. defence   2. ecological 3. irrigation 4. corporate

Q.63 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word. Inclusion Ans 1. Gain 2. Accrual 3. Omission  4. Boost

Q.64 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error. The rain will / not have stop / before the match / begins. Ans 1. not have stop  2. begins 3. The rain will  4. before the match

Q.65 Identify the error in the following sentence. Once on a time, there was a brave king. Ans 1. brave 2. on 3. was 4. once

Q.66 The following sentence has been divided into parts. One of them may contain an error. Select the part that contains the error from the given options. If you don’t find any error, select ‘No error’ as your answer. (a) The Gita/ (b) is most sacred book/ (c) of the Hindus. / (d) No error Ans 1. d 2. c 3. a  4. b

Q.67 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank. You can tell yourself that you would be willing to lose everything you have in order to get something you want: all of those things you’re willing to lose are what make you___________. Ans 1. pessimist 2. unfortunately 3. distract 4. recognisable

Q.68 Select the most appropriate option that expresses the given sentence in direct speech. Sakshi said that she would do it then or never. Ans 1. Sakshi said, “I will do it then or never.” 2. Sakshi said, “I have to do it now or never.” 3. Sakshi said, “I will do it now or never.” 4. Sakshi said, “I would do it then or never.”

Q.69 Sentences of a paragraph are given below in jumbled order. Select the most logical sequence of sentences from the options to construct a meaningful and cohesive paragraph. a. Researchers from five medical centres around the country found that insomniacs were also significantly likely to have poor health, such as chest pain, arthritis, and depression, as well as difficulties doing daily duties. b. Even temporary sleep loss can disrupt the body's capacity to break down carbohydrates, interfere with hormones, and aggravate diabetes and high blood pressure. c. So, make time for whatever helps you sleep, whether it's exercise, massages, yoga, meditation, or a fragrance bath. d. Sleep deprivation has frightening consequences for many biological processes. Ans 1. d, a, b, c 2. d, c, a, b 3. d, c, b , a 4. d, a, c, b

Q.70 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in passive voice. We have reorganised the department over the last year. Ans 1. Last year, the department was reorganised.  2. The department has been reorganised over the last year.  3. The department is reorganised by me.  4. The department is being reorganised over the last year.

Comprehension: In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in each blank. The Kodagu district administration ________ (1) planned a Honey Festival in the gardens of Raja Seat in Madikeri on 24 and 25 December. The festival, which has been planned in association with Kodagu Zilla Panchayat and Horticulture Department, _____ (2) aimed at encouraging _______ (3) in Kodagu in view of the worldwide demand for Coorg honey. The festival is _________ (4) to bring together not only people engaged in apiculture, but also scientists, societies and companies _________ (5) in producing honey. SubQuestion No : 71 Q.71 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1. Ans 1. has been 2. have 3. had 4. has

Comprehension: In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in each blank. The Kodagu district administration ________ (1) planned a Honey Festival in the gardens of Raja Seat in Madikeri on 24 and 25 December. The festival, which has been planned in association with Kodagu Zilla Panchayat and Horticulture Department, _____ (2) aimed at encouraging _______ (3) in Kodagu in view of the worldwide demand for Coorg honey. The festival is _________ (4) to bring together not only people engaged in apiculture, but also scientists, societies and companies _________ (5) in producing honey. SubQuestion No : 72 Q.72 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2. Ans 1. have 2. was 3. had 4. is

Comprehension: In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in each blank. The Kodagu district administration ________ (1) planned a Honey Festival in the gardens of Raja Seat in Madikeri on 24 and 25 December. The festival, which has been planned in association with Kodagu Zilla Panchayat and Horticulture Department, _____ (2) aimed at encouraging _______ (3) in Kodagu in view of the worldwide demand for Coorg honey. The festival is _________ (4) to bring together not only people engaged in apiculture, but also scientists, societies and companies _________ (5) in producing honey. SubQuestion No : 73 Q.73 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3. Ans 1. sericulture  2. apiculture 3. agriculture 4. horticulture

Comprehension: In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in each blank. The Kodagu district administration ________ (1) planned a Honey Festival in the gardens of Raja Seat in Madikeri on 24 and 25 December. The festival, which has been planned in association with Kodagu Zilla Panchayat and Horticulture Department, _____ (2) aimed at encouraging _______ (3) in Kodagu in view of the worldwide demand for Coorg honey. The festival is _________ (4) to bring together not only people engaged in apiculture, but also scientists, societies and companies _________ (5) in producing honey. SubQuestion No : 74 Q.74 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4. Ans 1. expected 2. accepted 3. excepted 4. sophisticated

Comprehension: In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in each blank. The Kodagu district administration ________ (1) planned a Honey Festival in the gardens of Raja Seat in Madikeri on 24 and 25 December. The festival, which has been planned in association with Kodagu Zilla Panchayat and Horticulture Department, _____ (2) aimed at encouraging _______ (3) in Kodagu in view of the worldwide demand for Coorg honey. The festival is _________ (4) to bring together not only people engaged in apiculture, but also scientists, societies and companies _________ (5) in producing honey. SubQuestion No : 75 Q.75 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 5. Ans 1. engaged 2. related 3. engrossed 4. captivated

Comprehension: In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in each blank. In its basic form, nursing can be seen as a duty, but beyond the (1)_________ operational activities that lay the (2)___________ of our daily work, the profession is all about grace. Helping people is a (3)_________ calling. It is a privilege to serve my fellow human beings. Fifteen years has seen many ups and downs at the workplace, but I have enjoyed (4)____________ the many patients who come into my care, and have prayed for the souls of those who were on the (5)____________ of death. SubQuestion No : 76 Q.76 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1. Ans 1. inadvertent 2. incessant 3. transparent 4. robust

Comprehension: In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in each blank. In its basic form, nursing can be seen as a duty, but beyond the (1)_________ operational activities that lay the (2)___________ of our daily work, the profession is all about grace. Helping people is a (3)_________ calling. It is a privilege to serve my fellow human beings. Fifteen years has seen many ups and downs at the workplace, but I have enjoyed (4)____________ the many patients who come into my care, and have prayed for the souls of those who were on the (5)____________ of death. SubQuestion No : 77 Q.77 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2. Ans 1. pleasing 2. delicacy 3. foundation 4. placement

Comprehension: In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in each blank. In its basic form, nursing can be seen as a duty, but beyond the (1)_________ operational activities that lay the (2)___________ of our daily work, the profession is all about grace. Helping people is a (3)_________ calling. It is a privilege to serve my fellow human beings. Fifteen years has seen many ups and downs at the workplace, but I have enjoyed (4)____________ the many patients who come into my care, and have prayed for the souls of those who were on the (5)____________ of death. SubQuestion No : 78 Q.78 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3. Ans 1. Noble 2. Corrosive 3. Diffident 4. problematic

Comprehension: In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in each blank. In its basic form, nursing can be seen as a duty, but beyond the (1)_________ operational activities that lay the (2)___________ of our daily work, the profession is all about grace. Helping people is a (3)_________ calling. It is a privilege to serve my fellow human beings. Fifteen years has seen many ups and downs at the workplace, but I have enjoyed (4)____________ the many patients who come into my care, and have prayed for the souls of those who were on the (5)____________ of death. SubQuestion No : 79 Q.79 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4. Ans 1. Deceiving 2. Hosting 3. Serving 4. preventing

Comprehension: In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in each blank. In its basic form, nursing can be seen as a duty, but beyond the (1)_________ operational activities that lay the (2)___________ of our daily work, the profession is all about grace. Helping people is a (3)_________ calling. It is a privilege to serve my fellow human beings. Fifteen years has seen many ups and downs at the workplace, but I have enjoyed (4)____________ the many patients who come into my care, and have prayed for the souls of those who were on the (5)____________ of death. SubQuestion No : 80 Q.80 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 5. Ans 1. allowance 2. brink 3. longevity 4. leverage

Comprehension: In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in each blank. The modern-day world is full of psychological disorders, (1)____ health, mental tension, and many more problems. Likewise, the life of some people is like a mad rush from one work to another without any (2)____. Besides, there are very few people in the world that care about their health more than their work or daily tasks. But there are ways by which we can restore our health fully and morning walk is one of them. It can reduce the amount of health disorders and (3)____ the physical shape and state of the body, which protects us from many diseases. Besides, morning walk gives you energy, motivates you to avoid laziness, creates a positive mindset, it is good for your organs especially the heart, and it gives you time to (4)_____ your day. To sum it up, we can say that, morning walk is very important for the body. Also, it helps to keep the body and mind healthy. Besides, everyone, (5)____ kids or elders should try to make morning walk a part of their daily routine. SubQuestion No : 81 Q.81 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1. Ans 1. strong 2. poor 3. best 4. good

Comprehension: In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in each blank. The modern-day world is full of psychological disorders, (1)____ health, mental tension, and many more problems. Likewise, the life of some people is like a mad rush from one work to another without any (2)____. Besides, there are very few people in the world that care about their health more than their work or daily tasks. But there are ways by which we can restore our health fully and morning walk is one of them. It can reduce the amount of health disorders and (3)____ the physical shape and state of the body, which protects us from many diseases. Besides, morning walk gives you energy, motivates you to avoid laziness, creates a positive mindset, it is good for your organs especially the heart, and it gives you time to (4)_____ your day. To sum it up, we can say that, morning walk is very important for the body. Also, it helps to keep the body and mind healthy. Besides, everyone, (5)____ kids or elders should try to make morning walk a part of their daily routine. SubQuestion No : 82 Q.82 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2. Ans 1. stress 2. urgent 3. break 4. fulfilling

Comprehension: In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in each blank. The modern-day world is full of psychological disorders, (1)____ health, mental tension, and many more problems. Likewise, the life of some people is like a mad rush from one work to another without any (2)____. Besides, there are very few people in the world that care about their health more than their work or daily tasks. But there are ways by which we can restore our health fully and morning walk is one of them. It can reduce the amount of health disorders and (3)____ the physical shape and state of the body, which protects us from many diseases. Besides, morning walk gives you energy, motivates you to avoid laziness, creates a positive mindset, it is good for your organs especially the heart, and it gives you time to (4)_____ your day. To sum it up, we can say that, morning walk is very important for the body. Also, it helps to keep the body and mind healthy. Besides, everyone, (5)____ kids or elders should try to make morning walk a part of their daily routine. SubQuestion No : 83 Q.83 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3. Ans 1. control 2. ruin 3. deteriorate 4. improve

Comprehension: In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in each blank. The modern-day world is full of psychological disorders, (1)____ health, mental tension, and many more problems. Likewise, the life of some people is like a mad rush from one work to another without any (2)____. Besides, there are very few people in the world that care about their health more than their work or daily tasks. But there are ways by which we can restore our health fully and morning walk is one of them. It can reduce the amount of health disorders and (3)____ the physical shape and state of the body, which protects us from many diseases. Besides, morning walk gives you energy, motivates you to avoid laziness, creates a positive mindset, it is good for your organs especially the heart, and it gives you time to (4)_____ your day. To sum it up, we can say that, morning walk is very important for the body. Also, it helps to keep the body and mind healthy. Besides, everyone, (5)____ kids or elders should try to make morning walk a part of their daily routine. SubQuestion No : 84 Q.84 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4. Ans 1. ruin 2. forget 3. plan 4. break

Comprehension: In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in each blank. The modern-day world is full of psychological disorders, (1)____ health, mental tension, and many more problems. Likewise, the life of some people is like a mad rush from one work to another without any (2)____. Besides, there are very few people in the world that care about their health more than their work or daily tasks. But there are ways by which we can restore our health fully and morning walk is one of them. It can reduce the amount of health disorders and (3)____ the physical shape and state of the body, which protects us from many diseases. Besides, morning walk gives you energy, motivates you to avoid laziness, creates a positive mindset, it is good for your organs especially the heart, and it gives you time to (4)_____ your day. To sum it up, we can say that, morning walk is very important for the body. Also, it helps to keep the body and mind healthy. Besides, everyone, (5)____ kids or elders should try to make morning walk a part of their daily routine. SubQuestion No : 85 Q.85 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 5. Ans 1. whether 2. neither 3. some 4. either

Comprehension: In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. Select the most appropriate option for each blank. She was, I think, a good woman – and she had him sent (1)_______. When her husband died, she (2)_________ the truth. And so, to save the man she loved, she tried to destroy the (3)________ against him. Later, I think, he (4)_________ her that her suspicions were (5)_________, and she consented to marry him. SubQuestion No : 86 Q.86 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no. 1. Ans 1. through 2. by 3. away 4. on

Comprehension: In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. Select the most appropriate option for each blank. She was, I think, a good woman – and she had him sent (1)_______. When her husband died, she (2)_________ the truth. And so, to save the man she loved, she tried to destroy the (3)________ against him. Later, I think, he (4)_________ her that her suspicions were (5)_________, and she consented to marry him. SubQuestion No : 87 Q.87 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no. 2. Ans 1. smuggled 2. filed 3. suspected 4. debited

Comprehension: In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. Select the most appropriate option for each blank. She was, I think, a good woman – and she had him sent (1)_______. When her husband died, she (2)_________ the truth. And so, to save the man she loved, she tried to destroy the (3)________ against him. Later, I think, he (4)_________ her that her suspicions were (5)_________, and she consented to marry him. SubQuestion No : 88 Q.88 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no. 3. Ans 1. time 2. crime 3. evidence 4. opportunity

Comprehension: In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. Select the most appropriate option for each blank. She was, I think, a good woman – and she had him sent (1)_______. When her husband died, she (2)_________ the truth. And so, to save the man she loved, she tried to destroy the (3)________ against him. Later, I think, he (4)_________ her that her suspicions were (5)_________, and she consented to marry him. SubQuestion No : 89 Q.89 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no. 4. Ans 1. pondered 2. persuaded 3. guessed 4. killed

Comprehension: In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. Select the most appropriate option for each blank. She was, I think, a good woman – and she had him sent (1)_______. When her husband died, she (2)_________ the truth. And so, to save the man she loved, she tried to destroy the (3)________ against him. Later, I think, he (4)_________ her that her suspicions were (5)_________, and she consented to marry him. SubQuestion No : 90 Q.90 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no. 5. Ans 1. true 2. concrete 3. unfounded 4. facts

Comprehension: Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow. The process of photosynthesis is one of the most important biological processes on Earth. It is the way that plants, algae, and some types of bacteria convert energy from the sun into chemical energy in the form of organic compounds. These organic compounds, such as sugars, are then used by the organism as a source of energy and as building blocks for growth and reproduction. The basic process of photosynthesis can be broken down into two main stages: the light-dependent reactions and the light-independent reactions (also known as the Calvin cycle). In the light-dependent reactions, energy from sunlight is absorbed by pigments in the chloroplasts of plant cells, and is used to convert water into oxygen and high-energy electrons. These electrons are then used to power the synthesis of ATP and NADPH, which are energy-rich molecules that are used in the light-independent reactions. In the light-independent reactions, the energy from ATP and NADPH is used to fix carbon dioxide into organic compounds, such as glucose. This process is known as carbon fixation and is mediated by a series of enzymes called the Calvin cycle. These reactions take place in the stroma of the chloroplasts, and the end result is the production of glucose and other sugars. Photosynthesis is not only important for the survival of plants, but also for all other organisms that depend on plants as a source of food. In addition, the oxygen produced during photosynthesis is crucial for the survival of animals and other organisms that require oxygen for respiration. Without the process of photosynthesis, the Earth’s atmosphere would not contain the high levels of oxygen that are necessary for most forms of life to survive. Overall, photosynthesis is a vital process that plays a critical role in the Earth’s ecosystem, providing the energy and organic compounds needed for the growth and survival of all forms of life. SubQuestion No : 91 Q.91 Identify the tone of the passage. Ans 1. Assertive and passive   2. Informative and neutral 3. Inquisitive and subjective  4. Informal and personal

Comprehension: Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow. The process of photosynthesis is one of the most important biological processes on Earth. It is the way that plants, algae, and some types of bacteria convert energy from the sun into chemical energy in the form of organic compounds. These organic compounds, such as sugars, are then used by the organism as a source of energy and as building blocks for growth and reproduction. The basic process of photosynthesis can be broken down into two main stages: the light-dependent reactions and the light-independent reactions (also known as the Calvin cycle). In the light-dependent reactions, energy from sunlight is absorbed by pigments in the chloroplasts of plant cells, and is used to convert water into oxygen and high-energy electrons. These electrons are then used to power the synthesis of ATP and NADPH, which are energy-rich molecules that are used in the light-independent reactions. In the light-independent reactions, the energy from ATP and NADPH is used to fix carbon dioxide into organic compounds, such as glucose. This process is known as carbon fixation and is mediated by a series of enzymes called the Calvin cycle. These reactions take place in the stroma of the chloroplasts, and the end result is the production of glucose and other sugars. Photosynthesis is not only important for the survival of plants, but also for all other organisms that depend on plants as a source of food. In addition, the oxygen produced during photosynthesis is crucial for the survival of animals and other organisms that require oxygen for respiration. Without the process of photosynthesis, the Earth’s atmosphere would not contain the high levels of oxygen that are necessary for most forms of life to survive. Overall, photosynthesis is a vital process that plays a critical role in the Earth’s ecosystem, providing the energy and organic compounds needed for the growth and survival of all forms of life. SubQuestion No : 92 Q.92 Which of the following is NOT a correct statement about the light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis? Ans 1. They use energy from sunlight to produce glucose. 2. They power the synthesis of ATP and NADPH.  3. They convert water into oxygen and high-energy electrons. 4. The energy from sunlight is absorbed by pigments in the chloroplasts of plant cell.

Comprehension: Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow. The process of photosynthesis is one of the most important biological processes on Earth. It is the way that plants, algae, and some types of bacteria convert energy from the sun into chemical energy in the form of organic compounds. These organic compounds, such as sugars, are then used by the organism as a source of energy and as building blocks for growth and reproduction. The basic process of photosynthesis can be broken down into two main stages: the light-dependent reactions and the light-independent reactions (also known as the Calvin cycle). In the light-dependent reactions, energy from sunlight is absorbed by pigments in the chloroplasts of plant cells, and is used to convert water into oxygen and high-energy electrons. These electrons are then used to power the synthesis of ATP and NADPH, which are energy-rich molecules that are used in the light-independent reactions. In the light-independent reactions, the energy from ATP and NADPH is used to fix carbon dioxide into organic compounds, such as glucose. This process is known as carbon fixation and is mediated by a series of enzymes called the Calvin cycle. These reactions take place in the stroma of the chloroplasts, and the end result is the production of glucose and other sugars. Photosynthesis is not only important for the survival of plants, but also for all other organisms that depend on plants as a source of food. In addition, the oxygen produced during photosynthesis is crucial for the survival of animals and other organisms that require oxygen for respiration. Without the process of photosynthesis, the Earth’s atmosphere would not contain the high levels of oxygen that are necessary for most forms of life to survive. Overall, photosynthesis is a vital process that plays a critical role in the Earth’s ecosystem, providing the energy and organic compounds needed for the growth and survival of all forms of life. SubQuestion No : 93 Q.93 Which of the following is NOT a correct statement about the light-independent reactions of photosynthesis? Ans 1. They use energy from ATP and NADPH to produce oxygen.  2. They are also known as the Calvin cycle.  3. They use energy from ATP and NADPH to produce glucose. 4. They take place in the stroma of the chloroplasts.

Comprehension: Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow. The process of photosynthesis is one of the most important biological processes on Earth. It is the way that plants, algae, and some types of bacteria convert energy from the sun into chemical energy in the form of organic compounds. These organic compounds, such as sugars, are then used by the organism as a source of energy and as building blocks for growth and reproduction. The basic process of photosynthesis can be broken down into two main stages: the light-dependent reactions and the light-independent reactions (also known as the Calvin cycle). In the light-dependent reactions, energy from sunlight is absorbed by pigments in the chloroplasts of plant cells, and is used to convert water into oxygen and high-energy electrons. These electrons are then used to power the synthesis of ATP and NADPH, which are energy-rich molecules that are used in the light-independent reactions. In the light-independent reactions, the energy from ATP and NADPH is used to fix carbon dioxide into organic compounds, such as glucose. This process is known as carbon fixation and is mediated by a series of enzymes called the Calvin cycle. These reactions take place in the stroma of the chloroplasts, and the end result is the production of glucose and other sugars. Photosynthesis is not only important for the survival of plants, but also for all other organisms that depend on plants as a source of food. In addition, the oxygen produced during photosynthesis is crucial for the survival of animals and other organisms that require oxygen for respiration. Without the process of photosynthesis, the Earth’s atmosphere would not contain the high levels of oxygen that are necessary for most forms of life to survive. Overall, photosynthesis is a vital process that plays a critical role in the Earth’s ecosystem, providing the energy and organic compounds needed for the growth and survival of all forms of life. SubQuestion No : 94 Q.94 Select the most appropriate title for the passage. Ans 1. The Calvin Cycle and Carbon Fixation  2. Photosynthesis in Algae and Bacteria 3. The Role of Pigments in Photosynthesis  4. The Importance of Photosynthesis in the Earth’s Ecosystem

Comprehension: Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow. The process of photosynthesis is one of the most important biological processes on Earth. It is the way that plants, algae, and some types of bacteria convert energy from the sun into chemical energy in the form of organic compounds. These organic compounds, such as sugars, are then used by the organism as a source of energy and as building blocks for growth and reproduction. The basic process of photosynthesis can be broken down into two main stages: the light-dependent reactions and the light-independent reactions (also known as the Calvin cycle). In the light-dependent reactions, energy from sunlight is absorbed by pigments in the chloroplasts of plant cells, and is used to convert water into oxygen and high-energy electrons. These electrons are then used to power the synthesis of ATP and NADPH, which are energy-rich molecules that are used in the light-independent reactions. In the light-independent reactions, the energy from ATP and NADPH is used to fix carbon dioxide into organic compounds, such as glucose. This process is known as carbon fixation and is mediated by a series of enzymes called the Calvin cycle. These reactions take place in the stroma of the chloroplasts, and the end result is the production of glucose and other sugars. Photosynthesis is not only important for the survival of plants, but also for all other organisms that depend on plants as a source of food. In addition, the oxygen produced during photosynthesis is crucial for the survival of animals and other organisms that require oxygen for respiration. Without the process of photosynthesis, the Earth’s atmosphere would not contain the high levels of oxygen that are necessary for most forms of life to survive. Overall, photosynthesis is a vital process that plays a critical role in the Earth’s ecosystem, providing the energy and organic compounds needed for the growth and survival of all forms of life. SubQuestion No : 95 Q.95 Identify the structure of the passage. Ans 1. Problem and Solution  2. Cause and Effect  3. Introduction, Main Body, Conclusion  4. Compare and Contrast

Comprehension: Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow. The topic of renewable energy is becoming increasingly important as concerns about climate change and the depletion of non-renewable resources continue to grow. Renewable energy sources, such as solar and wind power, have the potential to provide a clean and sustainable source of power for the world's growing population. One of the major advantages of renewable energy is that it is not limited by the same supply constraints as fossil fuels. Unlike oil, coal, and natural gas, which are finite resources that will eventually run out, renewable energy sources like solar and wind power will never run out. Additionally, renewable energy sources do not produce the greenhouse gases that are responsible for climate change, making them a much more environmentally friendly option. Despite the clear benefits of renewable energy, there are still significant challenges that need to be overcome in order for it to become a viable alternative to fossil fuels. One of the main challenges is the cost of renewable energy, which is currently higher than traditional fossil fuels. However, as technology continues to improve and economies of scale are achieved, the cost of renewable energy is expected to decrease. Another challenge is the need for reliable and efficient energy storage solutions, which are essential for the widespread adoption of renewable energy. Without effective energy storage solutions, renewable energy sources like solar and wind power can only be used when the sun is shining or the wind is blowing, which greatly limits their overall usefulness. Overall, renewable energy has the potential to play a critical role in addressing the world’s energy needs and reducing dependence on fossil fuels. While challenges remain, with continued research and development, renewable energy is likely to become increasingly viable and important in the coming years. SubQuestion No : 96 Q.96 Identify the tone of the passage. Ans 1. Sarcastic 2. Informative 3. Satirical 4. Subjective

Comprehension: Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow. The topic of renewable energy is becoming increasingly important as concerns about climate change and the depletion of non-renewable resources continue to grow. Renewable energy sources, such as solar and wind power, have the potential to provide a clean and sustainable source of power for the world's growing population. One of the major advantages of renewable energy is that it is not limited by the same supply constraints as fossil fuels. Unlike oil, coal, and natural gas, which are finite resources that will eventually run out, renewable energy sources like solar and wind power will never run out. Additionally, renewable energy sources do not produce the greenhouse gases that are responsible for climate change, making them a much more environmentally friendly option. Despite the clear benefits of renewable energy, there are still significant challenges that need to be overcome in order for it to become a viable alternative to fossil fuels. One of the main challenges is the cost of renewable energy, which is currently higher than traditional fossil fuels. However, as technology continues to improve and economies of scale are achieved, the cost of renewable energy is expected to decrease. Another challenge is the need for reliable and efficient energy storage solutions, which are essential for the widespread adoption of renewable energy. Without effective energy storage solutions, renewable energy sources like solar and wind power can only be used when the sun is shining or the wind is blowing, which greatly limits their overall usefulness. Overall, renewable energy has the potential to play a critical role in addressing the world’s energy needs and reducing dependence on fossil fuels. While challenges remain, with continued research and development, renewable energy is likely to become increasingly viable and important in the coming years. SubQuestion No : 97 Q.97 What is the main advantage of renewable energy over fossil fuels? Ans 1. It produces the greenhouse gases that are responsible for climate change.  2. It is cheaper than traditional fossil fuels. 3. It is not limited by the same supply constraints as fossil fuels.  4. The renewable energy sources will eventually run out.

Comprehension: Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow. The topic of renewable energy is becoming increasingly important as concerns about climate change and the depletion of non-renewable resources continue to grow. Renewable energy sources, such as solar and wind power, have the potential to provide a clean and sustainable source of power for the world's growing population. One of the major advantages of renewable energy is that it is not limited by the same supply constraints as fossil fuels. Unlike oil, coal, and natural gas, which are finite resources that will eventually run out, renewable energy sources like solar and wind power will never run out. Additionally, renewable energy sources do not produce the greenhouse gases that are responsible for climate change, making them a much more environmentally friendly option. Despite the clear benefits of renewable energy, there are still significant challenges that need to be overcome in order for it to become a viable alternative to fossil fuels. One of the main challenges is the cost of renewable energy, which is currently higher than traditional fossil fuels. However, as technology continues to improve and economies of scale are achieved, the cost of renewable energy is expected to decrease. Another challenge is the need for reliable and efficient energy storage solutions, which are essential for the widespread adoption of renewable energy. Without effective energy storage solutions, renewable energy sources like solar and wind power can only be used when the sun is shining or the wind is blowing, which greatly limits their overall usefulness. Overall, renewable energy has the potential to play a critical role in addressing the world’s energy needs and reducing dependence on fossil fuels. While challenges remain, with continued research and development, renewable energy is likely to become increasingly viable and important in the coming years. SubQuestion No : 98 Q.98 What is the main challenge facing the adoption of renewable energy? Ans 1. Insufficient demand for renewable energy  2. Abundance of fossil fuels in the world  3. Cost of renewable energy is currently higher than traditional fossil fuels  4. Lack of skilled labour for the production of renewable energy

Comprehension: Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow. The topic of renewable energy is becoming increasingly important as concerns about climate change and the depletion of non-renewable resources continue to grow. Renewable energy sources, such as solar and wind power, have the potential to provide a clean and sustainable source of power for the world's growing population. One of the major advantages of renewable energy is that it is not limited by the same supply constraints as fossil fuels. Unlike oil, coal, and natural gas, which are finite resources that will eventually run out, renewable energy sources like solar and wind power will never run out. Additionally, renewable energy sources do not produce the greenhouse gases that are responsible for climate change, making them a much more environmentally friendly option. Despite the clear benefits of renewable energy, there are still significant challenges that need to be overcome in order for it to become a viable alternative to fossil fuels. One of the main challenges is the cost of renewable energy, which is currently higher than traditional fossil fuels. However, as technology continues to improve and economies of scale are achieved, the cost of renewable energy is expected to decrease. Another challenge is the need for reliable and efficient energy storage solutions, which are essential for the widespread adoption of renewable energy. Without effective energy storage solutions, renewable energy sources like solar and wind power can only be used when the sun is shining or the wind is blowing, which greatly limits their overall usefulness. Overall, renewable energy has the potential to play a critical role in addressing the world’s energy needs and reducing dependence on fossil fuels. While challenges remain, with continued research and development, renewable energy is likely to become increasingly viable and important in the coming years. SubQuestion No : 99 Q.99 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word. Viable Ans 1. Irresolvable 2. Inaccurate 3. Indignant 4. Impracticable

Comprehension: Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow. The topic of renewable energy is becoming increasingly important as concerns about climate change and the depletion of non-renewable resources continue to grow. Renewable energy sources, such as solar and wind power, have the potential to provide a clean and sustainable source of power for the world's growing population. One of the major advantages of renewable energy is that it is not limited by the same supply constraints as fossil fuels. Unlike oil, coal, and natural gas, which are finite resources that will eventually run out, renewable energy sources like solar and wind power will never run out. Additionally, renewable energy sources do not produce the greenhouse gases that are responsible for climate change, making them a much more environmentally friendly option. Despite the clear benefits of renewable energy, there are still significant challenges that need to be overcome in order for it to become a viable alternative to fossil fuels. One of the main challenges is the cost of renewable energy, which is currently higher than traditional fossil fuels. However, as technology continues to improve and economies of scale are achieved, the cost of renewable energy is expected to decrease. Another challenge is the need for reliable and efficient energy storage solutions, which are essential for the widespread adoption of renewable energy. Without effective energy storage solutions, renewable energy sources like solar and wind power can only be used when the sun is shining or the wind is blowing, which greatly limits their overall usefulness. Overall, renewable energy has the potential to play a critical role in addressing the world’s energy needs and reducing dependence on fossil fuels. While challenges remain, with continued research and development, renewable energy is likely to become increasingly viable and important in the coming years. SubQuestion No : 100 Q.100 Select the most appropriate title for the passage. Ans 1. The Future of Nuclear Energy 2. The Role of Technology in Energy Production 3. The Environmental Impact of Non-Renewable Energy Sources 4. The Advantages and Challenges of Renewable Energy